ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who is having suicidal thoughts tells the nurse, "It just doesn't seem worth it anymore. Why not end my misery?" Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The appropriate response by the nurse is to ask about the client's plan to end their life. This question helps to assess the severity of the client's suicidal ideation and the immediacy of the risk, allowing the nurse to determine the appropriate level of intervention. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the immediate risk assessment needed in this situation.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to withhold heparin IV infusion. The nurse should withhold heparin if there are signs of complications, such as bleeding, or if there are contraindications to continuing anticoagulation therapy. Positioning the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart helps reduce swelling and improve blood flow. Administering acetaminophen for pain management can be appropriate, but it is not the priority in this situation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications, so it should be avoided.
Question 3 of 5
A client is receiving enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to inject enoxaparin into the lateral abdominal wall for subcutaneous absorption. This site is commonly used for administering this type of medication. Expelling air bubbles from the syringe is not necessary and may result in a reduced dose being administered. Massaging the injection site is not recommended as it can lead to bruising or irritation. Administering an NSAID for injection site discomfort is not indicated as discomfort at the injection site is usually minimal and self-limiting.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage osteoporosis and is reporting severe pain. The client's respiratory rate is 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse prioritize administering?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hydromorphone, an opioid, is the most appropriate option for managing severe pain in this context. Opioids provide fast-acting relief for acute pain associated with advanced osteoporosis. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antihistamine and not indicated for pain relief. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may increase the risk of bleeding and is not recommended for severe pain management. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.