A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

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Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions

Question 1 of 9

A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed. This recommendation helps alleviate morning sickness by providing a small, easily digestible snack to settle the stomach before getting up. It helps stabilize blood sugar levels and prevent an empty stomach exacerbating nausea. Explanation for why B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Awakening during the night to eat a snack can disrupt sleep patterns and is not necessary for managing morning sickness. C: Skipping breakfast and waiting until lunch may lead to prolonged nausea and low blood sugar levels, worsening symptoms. D: Eating a large evening meal can increase the likelihood of acid reflux and indigestion, making morning sickness worse.

Question 2 of 9

A client at 42 weeks of gestation is having an ultrasound. For which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare for an amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A client at 42 weeks of gestation is at risk for oligohydramnios, which is associated with decreased amniotic fluid levels. Amnioinfusion can be used to increase amniotic fluid volume to prevent fetal cord compression and facilitate fetal movement during labor. Summary: - B: Hydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not require amnioinfusion. - C: Fetal cord compression is a reason for amnioinfusion, not a condition to prepare for. - D: Polyhydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not typically require amnioinfusion unless there are complicating factors.

Question 3 of 9

While caring for a newborn undergoing phototherapy to treat hyperbilirubinemia, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Cover the newborn's eyes with an opaque eye mask while under the phototherapy light. Rationale: 1. Phototherapy light can cause eye damage, so covering the newborn's eyes with an opaque eye mask protects them. 2. Newborns' eyes are more sensitive to light, making eye protection crucial during phototherapy. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Keeping the newborn in a shirt won't protect the eyes from phototherapy light. C: Applying lotion can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy and may cause skin irritation. D: Turning and repositioning the newborn is important for comfort, but eye protection is the priority during phototherapy.

Question 4 of 9

During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately describes an episiotomy as an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus. This information is crucial for the client to understand the purpose and potential benefits of the procedure. A: While choice A is similar to the correct answer, it includes unnecessary detail about who makes the incision, which may confuse the client. B: Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area, which is not recommended as it would involve cutting through the anal sphincter. D: Choice D is incorrect because it introduces unnecessary information about the types of episiotomies without providing the basic understanding of what an episiotomy is.

Question 5 of 9

When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dizziness. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension, leading to dizziness. This is a common side effect and needs to be monitored to prevent falls or injury. Blood-tinged sputum (A) is not typically associated with nifedipine use. Pallor (C) is not a common manifestation of nifedipine side effects. Somnolence (D) is also not a common side effect of nifedipine. Dizziness is the most relevant and potentially harmful manifestation to monitor for in a client receiving nifedipine for preterm labor.

Question 6 of 9

A client at 8 weeks of gestation with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. Which beverage should the nurse reinforce the client to take the supplements with for better absorption?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orange juice. Vitamin C enhances iron absorption by converting non-heme iron to a more absorbable form. The acidity in orange juice aids in this process. Ice water (choice A) does not contain any nutrients to enhance iron absorption. Low-fat or whole milk (choice B) contains calcium, which can inhibit iron absorption. Tea or coffee (choice C) contains tannins that can also inhibit iron absorption. In summary, orange juice is the best choice due to its vitamin C content that helps improve iron absorption.

Question 7 of 9

A client at 40 weeks of gestation is experiencing contractions every 3 to 5 minutes, becoming stronger. A vaginal exam by the registered nurse reveals the client's cervix is 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and -1 station. The client requests pain medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to administer opioid analgesic medication (Choice C). At 40 weeks gestation with contractions every 3-5 minutes, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and -1 station, the client is in active labor. Pain medication is appropriate to manage discomfort during labor. Opioid analgesics can help reduce pain intensity while still allowing the client to remain alert and participate in labor. Ice chips (Choice A and D) are not directly related to pain management in labor. Inserting a urinary catheter (Choice B) is not indicated unless there are specific concerns about bladder distention.

Question 8 of 9

A client who is pregnant states that her last menstrual period was April 1st. What is the client's estimated date of delivery?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated by adding 280 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). In this case, April 1st + 280 days = January 8, which is the correct EDD. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not account for the 280-day gestation period from the LMP.

Question 9 of 9

A client presents with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: Massaging the client's fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions and control postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine hypotonicity. This action helps prevent further blood loss and promotes uterine tone. Checking capillary refill would not directly address the immediate issue of hemorrhage. Inserting a urinary catheter is not a priority in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Preparing for a blood transfusion may be necessary later, but addressing the uterine hypotonicity and hemorrhage is the priority.

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