ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed. This recommendation helps alleviate morning sickness by providing a small, easily digestible snack to settle the stomach before getting up. It helps stabilize blood sugar levels and prevent an empty stomach exacerbating nausea. Explanation for why B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Awakening during the night to eat a snack can disrupt sleep patterns and is not necessary for managing morning sickness. C: Skipping breakfast and waiting until lunch may lead to prolonged nausea and low blood sugar levels, worsening symptoms. D: Eating a large evening meal can increase the likelihood of acid reflux and indigestion, making morning sickness worse.
Question 2 of 9
When caring for a client in labor, which of the following infections can be treated during labor or immediately following birth? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. All three infections - Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, and HIV - can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. Antibiotics can be administered for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia, while antiretroviral medications can be given for HIV. Prompt treatment is crucial to reduce the risk of vertical transmission. The other choices are incorrect because each infection listed can be effectively managed during labor or post-birth, making choice D the most comprehensive and accurate option.
Question 3 of 9
A client is in labor, and a nurse observes late decelerations on the electronic fetal monitor. What should the nurse identify as the first action that the registered nurse should take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assist the client into the left-lateral position. This is the first action because it helps improve placental perfusion, which can alleviate late decelerations associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. The left-lateral position promotes optimal blood flow and oxygenation to the placenta by reducing pressure on the vena cava and improving maternal perfusion. This position can potentially prevent further fetal distress. Summary of other choices: B: Applying a fetal scalp electrode is not the first action for addressing late decelerations. It may be considered later for more precise monitoring. C: Inserting an IV catheter is important but not the priority when late decelerations are observed. D: Performing a vaginal exam is not indicated as the first action for addressing late decelerations and could potentially increase the risk of infection.
Question 4 of 9
An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Levonorgestrel is a type of emergency contraception that is most effective when taken within 72 hours after unprotected sex. Step 2: Taking the medication within the specified time frame increases its effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Step 3: Thus, the nurse should emphasize to the adolescent the importance of taking the medication promptly after unprotected intercourse. Step 4: This information is crucial for the adolescent to understand the time-sensitive nature of levonorgestrel contraception. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because it provides contradictory information. Levonorgestrel can be taken even if the individual is on an oral contraceptive. - Choice C is incorrect as starting a period is not a reliable indicator of pregnancy. A pregnancy test is recommended if there are concerns. - Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraception and does not provide protection for 14 days.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. It is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that effectively treats gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used for fungal infections, not bacterial. Metronidazole (C) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, not gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a late preterm newborn. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an indication of hypoglycemia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Respiratory distress. Hypoglycemia in a late preterm newborn can lead to respiratory distress due to inadequate energy supply to respiratory muscles. Hypertonia (choice A) may indicate other issues such as hypocalcemia. Increased feeding (choice B) is not a typical clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia, as the newborn may have poor feeding due to low energy levels. Hyperthermia (choice C) is not directly related to hypoglycemia but may occur in response to infection or other causes. Thus, respiratory distress is the most indicative of hypoglycemia in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. This is because shortness of breath can indicate a potentially serious side effect like a blood clot, which is a rare but serious complication associated with oral contraceptives. Reduced menstrual flow (A) is a common side effect and not typically a cause for concern. Breast tenderness (B) is a common but generally benign side effect of oral contraceptives. Increased appetite (D) is also a common side effect but not typically a sign of a serious complication. Therefore, the healthcare provider should emphasize the importance of reporting shortness of breath promptly.
Question 8 of 9
A healthcare professional is providing information to a group of clients who are pregnant about measures to relieve backache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform the pelvic rock exercise every day. This exercise helps strengthen the core muscles, which can alleviate backache during pregnancy. It also promotes flexibility in the lower back and pelvis. Avoiding any lifting (A) is not a practical measure as some lifting may be necessary in daily activities. Performing Kegel exercises (B) strengthens pelvic floor muscles but does not directly address backache. Avoiding standing for prolonged periods (D) can help reduce backache but is not as effective as specific exercises targeting the back muscles like the pelvic rock exercise.
Question 9 of 9
A client in active labor is irritable, reports the urge to have a bowel movement, vomits, and states, 'I've had enough. I can't do this anymore.' Which of the following stages of labor is the client experiencing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing the transition phase of labor. This stage occurs between the first and second stages, characterized by intense contractions, rapid cervical dilation, and strong emotions like irritability and feeling overwhelmed. The urge to have a bowel movement and vomiting are common signs indicating the baby is descending. The statement 'I can't do this anymore' is typical of transition as it signifies the peak of discomfort before the urge to push in the second stage. Other options are incorrect as the symptoms described align with the transition phase.