ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed. This is recommended as it helps stabilize blood sugar levels and alleviate morning sickness. Eating small, bland snacks can help manage nausea. Choice B is incorrect as it disrupts sleep and may not address the issue effectively. Choice C is incorrect as skipping breakfast can worsen nausea. Choice D is incorrect as consuming a large meal in the evening can exacerbate morning sickness due to the stomach being full overnight.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydatidiform mole. At 4 months gestation, prune-colored discharge and larger than expected fundal height are concerning for this rare condition. Hydatidiform mole presents with symptoms like persistent nausea, vomiting, and abnormal vaginal bleeding. It is characterized by abnormal placental tissue growth and can lead to complications such as hyperthyroidism, preeclampsia, or even choriocarcinoma. Incorrect choices: A: Hyperemesis gravidarum typically presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and weight loss, which is not seen in this case. B: Threatened abortion usually presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping, not prune-colored discharge. D: Preterm labor presents with regular contractions and cervical changes, not prune-colored discharge or larger than expected fundal height.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. This is because shortness of breath can be a sign of a serious side effect such as a blood clot, which is a potential risk associated with oral contraceptives. Reduced menstrual flow (A) and breast tenderness (B) are common side effects of oral contraceptives and are usually not considered concerning enough to report. Increased appetite (D) is also a common side effect and does not typically warrant immediate reporting unless it becomes severe or persistent. Therefore, shortness of breath is the most critical manifestation to report due to its association with serious complications like blood clots.
Question 4 of 9
While assisting with the care of a client in active labor, a nurse observes clear fluid and a loop of pulsating umbilical cord outside the client's vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Call for assistance. The first step in this situation is to call for help to ensure prompt and appropriate management of the emergency. This action is crucial as the nurse alone may not have the resources or skills required to address the situation effectively. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position (A) can worsen the prolapse, applying finger pressure to the presenting part (B) is not recommended as it can further compress the cord, and administering oxygen (C) should be done after addressing the cord prolapse. Calling for assistance ensures a timely and coordinated response to manage the situation effectively.
Question 5 of 9
A client has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify and report as signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to respiratory depression (respirations less than 12/min), decreased urinary output (less than 25 mL/hr), and altered mental status (decreased level of consciousness). These are classic signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity due to its effects on the central nervous system and renal function. Reporting these findings promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications such as respiratory arrest and renal failure. Other choices are incorrect as they do not encompass the full spectrum of potential signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium gluconate. In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is administered as an antidote. This is because magnesium and calcium ions compete for the same binding sites in the body. By administering calcium gluconate, it helps counteract the effects of magnesium toxicity and restore the balance between these ions. Nifedipine (A) is a calcium channel blocker and is not used to treat magnesium toxicity. Pyridoxine (B) is vitamin B6 and is not indicated for magnesium toxicity. Ferrous sulfate (C) is an iron supplement and is not relevant for treating magnesium toxicity.
Question 7 of 9
During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately describes an episiotomy as an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus. This is the fundamental purpose of performing an episiotomy during childbirth. Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately specifies "perineal incision," whereas an episiotomy is specifically made in the perineum. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area, which is not recommended as it increases the risk of complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries; the choice of episiotomy type depends on various factors and provider preference.
Question 8 of 9
A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Betamethasone. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to pregnant women at risk of preterm delivery to promote fetal lung maturation. In this case, at 32 weeks with active bleeding due to placenta previa, there is a high risk of preterm delivery. Betamethasone helps accelerate fetal lung development, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. B: Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to close a patent ductus arteriosus in preterm infants, not indicated for placenta previa. C: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used in preterm labor to delay delivery, not indicated for placenta previa. D: Methylergonovine is an ergot alkaloid used for postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated in the management of placenta previa-related bleeding.
Question 9 of 9
A client at 8 weeks of gestation with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. Which beverage should the nurse reinforce the client to take the supplements with for better absorption?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orange juice. Orange juice contains vitamin C, which enhances the absorption of iron supplements. Vitamin C helps convert non-heme iron (found in plant-based foods and supplements) into a form that is easier for the body to absorb. Therefore, taking iron supplements with orange juice can improve iron absorption and help treat iron deficiency anemia. Choice A, ice water, does not contain any nutrients that aid in iron absorption. Choice B, low-fat or whole milk, contains calcium and casein, which may inhibit iron absorption. Choice C, tea or coffee, contains tannins and polyphenols that can interfere with iron absorption. In summary, the correct answer is D because orange juice contains vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption, while the other choices do not have this beneficial effect.