ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation is being educated about common discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the individual include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. At 6 weeks of gestation, common discomforts include breast tenderness due to hormonal changes, urinary frequency from increased blood flow to kidneys, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) due to increased blood volume and vessel fragility. Therefore, all options are relevant and should be included in the education. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the common discomforts experienced during early pregnancy.
Question 2 of 9
A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy. The client is at 10 weeks of gestation and has a BMI within the expected reference range. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I will likely need to use alternative positions for sexual intercourse." At 10 weeks of gestation, the uterus begins to enlarge, potentially causing discomfort in the missionary position. This statement shows an understanding of the physical changes in pregnancy. A is incorrect because the recommended weight gain for a client with normal BMI is 25-35 pounds during pregnancy, not less than 15-20 pounds. C is incorrect as breast size typically increases during pregnancy due to hormonal changes, regardless of prior breast reduction surgery. D is incorrect because stretch marks are common during pregnancy, regardless of skin complexion.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. This is because shortness of breath can indicate a potentially serious side effect like a blood clot, which is a rare but serious complication associated with oral contraceptives. Reduced menstrual flow (A) is a common side effect and not typically a cause for concern. Breast tenderness (B) is a common but generally benign side effect of oral contraceptives. Increased appetite (D) is also a common side effect but not typically a sign of a serious complication. Therefore, the healthcare provider should emphasize the importance of reporting shortness of breath promptly.
Question 4 of 9
A client presents with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Massaging the client's fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions and control postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine hypotonicity. This action helps prevent further blood loss and promotes uterine tone. Checking capillary refill would not directly address the immediate issue of hemorrhage. Inserting a urinary catheter is not a priority in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Preparing for a blood transfusion may be necessary later, but addressing the uterine hypotonicity and hemorrhage is the priority.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can indeed help prevent breakage and maintain effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs. Water-based lubricants are safe to use with condoms as they do not weaken the latex. Option B is incorrect as a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, not removed after 2 hours. Option C is also incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in many cases. Option D is incorrect as a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.
Question 6 of 9
A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transition. Transition phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 8 to 10 cm. This phase is characterized by intense contractions close together, increased rectal pressure, and emotional changes. The client in this scenario has contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and the cervix is dilated to 9 cm. This aligns with the characteristics of the transition phase. Summary: A: Active phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 4 to 7 cm. C: Latent phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 0 to 3 cm. D: Descent phase is not a recognized phase of labor.
Question 7 of 9
A client in active labor is irritable, reports the urge to have a bowel movement, vomits, and states, 'I've had enough. I can't do this anymore.' Which of the following stages of labor is the client experiencing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing the transition phase of labor. This stage occurs between the first and second stages, characterized by intense contractions, rapid cervical dilation, and strong emotions like irritability and feeling overwhelmed. The urge to have a bowel movement and vomiting are common signs indicating the baby is descending. The statement 'I can't do this anymore' is typical of transition as it signifies the peak of discomfort before the urge to push in the second stage. Other options are incorrect as the symptoms described align with the transition phase.
Question 8 of 9
A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. Implantable progestins are hormonal contraceptives known to cause common adverse effects such as nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain. Nausea is a common side effect due to hormonal changes. Irregular vaginal bleeding can occur as a result of hormonal imbalance. Weight gain is a known side effect associated with progestin use. Therefore, all of the listed adverse effects should be included in the client education. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass the full range of potential adverse effects associated with implantable progestins.
Question 9 of 9
When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because counting the fetal heart rate after a contraction helps determine baseline changes, which is essential for identifying fetal distress. This method allows for accurate assessment of fetal well-being in response to contractions. Choice A is incorrect as 15 seconds is not enough time to establish a baseline. Choice B is incorrect as auscultating every 5 minutes may not provide timely information during the active phase. Choice D is incorrect because auscultating every 30 minutes in the second stage may miss important changes in fetal status. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for intermittent fetal heart monitoring.