ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client who is at 42 weeks gestation and in labor asks the nurse what to expect because the baby is postmature. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a baby who is postmature may have dry, cracked, and peeling skin, leading to a leathery appearance due to prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid. This occurs as the protective vernix caseosa diminishes over time. Choice A is incorrect because excess baby fat is not a typical characteristic of postmaturity. Choice B is incorrect as flat areola without breast buds is not a common feature of postmaturity. Choice C is incorrect as the ability to easily move heels to ears is a sign of flexibility and does not specifically relate to postmaturity.
Question 2 of 9
A newborn who was born at 38 weeks of gestation, weighs 3,200 g, and is in the 60th percentile for weight should be classified as which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Appropriate for gestational age. A newborn is considered appropriate for gestational age when their weight falls within the 10th to 90th percentiles for their gestational age. In this case, the newborn is in the 60th percentile for weight, indicating that the weight is appropriate for the gestational age of 38 weeks. Choice A: Low birth weight is incorrect because a newborn is classified as low birth weight when their weight is below 2,500 g regardless of gestational age. Choice C: Small for gestational age is incorrect because a newborn is classified as small for gestational age when their weight is below the 10th percentile for their gestational age. Choice D: Large for gestational age is incorrect because a newborn is classified as large for gestational age when their weight is above the 90th percentile for their gestational age.
Question 3 of 9
A client who is 2 days postpartum has a saturated perineal pad with bright red lochia containing small clots. What should the nurse document in the client's medical record?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Moderate lochia rubra. This indicates normal postpartum bleeding 2 days after delivery. Bright red lochia with small clots is expected at this stage. Excessive lochia serosa (B) and scant lochia serosa (D) are not appropriate as serosa typically appears after the first few days postpartum. Light lochia rubra (C) does not accurately describe the amount of bleeding observed in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
When reinforcing teaching with new parents on bathing a newborn, a nurse observes a bluish-brown marking across the newborn's lower back. Which of the following statements should the nurse make concerning the variation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: This is more commonly seen in newborns who have dark skin. The bluish-brown marking described is likely a Mongolian spot, a common birthmark in darker-skinned infants. It is not related to hyperbilirubinemia (jaundice), forceps marks, or birth trauma. Mongolian spots are benign and typically fade over time. This statement is correct as it addresses the specific characteristic of the marking and its association with dark skin pigmentation in newborns.
Question 5 of 9
A client has postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant. This is the priority because postpartum psychosis poses a risk of harm to the client and the infant. Assessing for suicidal or homicidal ideation is crucial to ensure safety. Choice A may be important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Choice C is important but not the priority. Choice D may provide background information but does not address the immediate safety concern.
Question 6 of 9
A client who is breastfeeding and has mastitis is receiving teaching from the nurse. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump. This is the correct response because it helps to ensure effective milk removal, which is crucial for treating mastitis. By fully emptying the breast, the nurse can prevent milk stasis and promote healing. A: Limiting the time the infant nurses on each breast may lead to incomplete milk removal, worsening the condition. B: Nursing only on the unaffected breast does not address the issue of milk stasis in the affected breast and may lead to further complications. D: Wearing a tight-fitting bra can exacerbate mastitis by restricting milk flow and increasing discomfort.
Question 7 of 9
A client is exhibiting tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and a feeling of letdown after childbirth. Which of the following conditions is associated with these manifestations?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum blues. This temporary condition occurs in the first few days after childbirth and is characterized by symptoms like tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and feeling letdown. Here's the rationale: 1. Postpartum blues are common and typically resolve within a few days to a week postpartum. 2. The symptoms mentioned align with the typical presentation of postpartum blues, which includes mood swings, irritability, and crying spells. 3. Postpartum fatigue (choice A) is a general symptom post-childbirth but does not specifically encompass the emotional and psychological symptoms described. 4. Postpartum psychosis (choice B) is a severe condition characterized by hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking, which are not present in the client's presentation. 5. Letting-go phase (choice C) refers to the process of detachment from the pregnancy and accepting the reality of the newborn, but it does not encompass the specific symptoms described in
Question 8 of 9
A nurse on a labor unit is admitting a client who reports painful contractions. The nurse determines that the contractions have a duration of 1 minute and a frequency of 3 minutes. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: fetal heart rate 130/min, maternal heart rate 128/min, and maternal blood pressure 92/54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Position the client with one hip elevated. This is the priority action because the client's contractions are frequent and of significant duration, indicating active labor. Elevating one hip can help improve fetal oxygenation and blood flow during contractions. It can also help optimize fetal positioning for a smoother labor process. Choice A: Notifying the provider is important but not the priority at this moment. The nurse should first address immediate client needs. Choice C: Asking about pain medication is important, but managing the client's positioning for labor progress takes precedence. Choice D: Having the client void is a routine step in labor management but is not the priority action in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. After an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, and the placenta, fetus, and tissues remain in the uterus. How should the nurse document these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Missed miscarriage. At 11 weeks gestation, the fetus has died but has not been expelled from the uterus. This is known as a missed miscarriage. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Incomplete miscarriage involves partial expulsion of the products of conception. C: Inevitable miscarriage indicates that the miscarriage is in progress and cannot be stopped. D: Complete miscarriage refers to the complete expulsion of all products of conception from the uterus.