ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation is reviewing a new prescription of ferrous sulfate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I plan to drink more orange juice while taking this pill." Orange juice is rich in vitamin C, which enhances the absorption of iron from ferrous sulfate, helping to combat iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy. Taking the pill with a vitamin C source is important for optimal absorption. A: Taking the pill with breakfast may not provide enough vitamin C for optimal absorption. B: Milk may inhibit iron absorption due to its calcium content, so it is not ideal to take with ferrous sulfate. D: While increasing calcium-rich foods is important during pregnancy, it is not directly related to enhancing iron absorption from ferrous sulfate.
Question 2 of 9
A client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation is receiving continuous IV oxytocin and has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing is to continue monitoring the client. Early decelerations are typically benign and are associated with head compression during contractions, which is a normal response to labor. There is no need to discontinue the oxytocin infusion as early decelerations do not indicate fetal distress. Requesting the provider to assess the client may not be necessary at this point unless other concerning signs are present. Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid is not indicated as it would not address the early decelerations. Therefore, the best course of action is to continue monitoring the client for any changes in the FHR pattern.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of severe shoulder pain. In a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. As the tube ruptures, there is internal bleeding which can irritate the diaphragm, causing referred pain to the shoulder. This phenomenon is known as Kehr's sign. The other choices are incorrect because with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, there would typically be altered menses due to the pregnancy disruption, a transvaginal ultrasound would not show a fetus in the uterus, and blood progesterone levels would not be elevated.
Question 4 of 9
When caring for a client in labor, which of the following infections can be treated during labor or immediately following birth? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. All three infections - Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, and HIV - can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. Antibiotics can be administered for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia, while antiretroviral medications can be given for HIV. Prompt treatment is crucial to reduce the risk of vertical transmission. The other choices are incorrect because each infection listed can be effectively managed during labor or post-birth, making choice D the most comprehensive and accurate option.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is assisting the nurse manager with an educational session about ways to prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by one of the session participants indicates understanding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients should avoid consuming undercooked meat while pregnant to prevent toxoplasmosis, a TORCH infection. Toxoplasmosis is commonly found in undercooked meat and can be harmful to the fetus. Seeking an immunization against rubella early in pregnancy (A) is important, but it does not prevent all TORCH infections. Prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus if detected during pregnancy (B) is not a standard practice. Avoiding crowded places during pregnancy (C) may reduce the risk of infections, but it is not specific to TORCH infections.
Question 6 of 9
A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches are all contraindications to oral contraceptives. Cholecystitis can be exacerbated by oral contraceptives. Hypertension increases the risk of cardiovascular events with oral contraceptives. Migraine headaches, especially with aura, are associated with an increased risk of stroke when combined with oral contraceptives. Therefore, considering these risks, it is crucial to recognize these findings as contraindications to prescribing oral contraceptives.
Question 7 of 9
When providing care for a client in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation, which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to hasten fetal lung maturity?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that promotes fetal lung maturity by stimulating the production of surfactant, essential for lung function. Step 2: At 32 weeks, the fetus may benefit from accelerated lung development to reduce respiratory distress. Step 3: Calcium gluconate is used for hypocalcemia, not for fetal lung maturity. Step 4: Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to delay preterm labor, not for lung maturity. Step 5: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker to prevent preterm labor, not for fetal lung maturity.
Question 8 of 9
A newborn was transferred to the nursery 30 min after delivery. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because verifying the newborn's identification ensures the right baby is in the nursery. It is crucial for patient safety and prevents mix-ups. Confirming identification (choice A) is important but comes after verification. Administering vitamin K (choice C) is a necessary procedure but not the first priority. Determining obstetrical risk factors (choice D) is important but not as immediate as verifying identification. Thus, verifying the newborn's identification should be done first to prevent errors and ensure proper care.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV to a client who is in preterm labor. Available is 20 g of magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W). How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the mL/hr for the IV infusion pump, we need to use the formula: (Desired dose in mg/hr * Volume of solution in mL) / Concentration of solution in mg/mL. Given: Desired dose = 2 g/hr = 2000 mg/hr Volume of solution = 500 mL Concentration of solution = 20 g in 500 mL = 20,000 mg in 500 mL = 40 mg/mL Now, plug these values into the formula: (2000 mg/hr * 500 mL) / 40 mg/mL = 25,000 mL/hr Round this to the nearest whole number, which is 25,000 mL/hr ≈ 50 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV infusion pump should be set to administer 50 mL/hr, making choice C the correct answer. Option A (60 mL/hr) and Option D (80 mL/hr) are incorrect as they do not match the calculated value. Option