Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Moderate lochia rubra.' On the second day postpartum, it is normal for lochia to be bright red and contain small clots, indicating moderate lochia rubra. This amount of bleeding is expected as the uterus continues to shed its lining after childbirth. Excessive lochia serosa, light lochia rubra, and scant lochia serosa do not accurately reflect the described scenario. Excessive lochia serosa is more characteristic of a later postpartum period, while light and scant lochia serosa are not consistent with the bright red color and small clots observed in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should interpret this data as a normal postpartum discharge of lochia. Lochia is the normal vaginal discharge after childbirth, and the gush of dark red blood upon ambulation is typical due to the pooling of blood in the vagina when lying down, which is then released upon standing. The firm, midline uterus at the level of the umbilicus indicates normal involution of the uterus postpartum. Therefore, this scenario is consistent with the expected postpartum physiological changes rather than complications like hematoma, lacerations, or abnormal excessive bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the described findings are more indicative of normal postpartum processes rather than complications such as vaginal hematoma, lacerations, or excessive bleeding.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A bluish-brown marking across the lower back is more commonly seen in newborns with dark skin. These markings are known as Mongolian spots and are benign. They are not related to hyperbilirubinemia, forceps marks, or trauma during delivery. Choice B is incorrect because hyperbilirubinemia presents as jaundice, not as a bluish-brown marking. Choice C is incorrect because forceps marks would have a different appearance and location. Choice D is incorrect as Mongolian spots are not related to prolonged birth or trauma during delivery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct treatment for chlamydia is a one-time dose of azithromycin. It is crucial for the client to understand the correct medication regimen for effective treatment. Choice B is incorrect because treatment is necessary for the partner even if asymptomatic. Choice C is incorrect because sexual relations should be avoided until treatment is completed. Choice D is incorrect as retesting should generally occur 3 months after treatment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client has postpartum psychosis, the priority action for the nurse is to ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant. This is crucial to assess the risk of harm and ensure the safety of the client and the infant. While reinforcing the importance of taking antipsychotics as prescribed is essential for treatment, safety concerns take precedence. Monitoring the infant for signs of failure to thrive is important for the infant's well-being but is not the priority when the immediate safety of the client and infant is at risk. Checking the client's medical record for a history of bipolar disorder is relevant for understanding the client's medical history but is not the priority when addressing current safety concerns.