ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is complaining of a severe headache. The client's blood pressure is 110/70, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/minute, heart rate is 74 beats/minute, and temperature is 98.6º F. The client's fundus is firm and one fingerbreadth above the umbilicus. What action should the healthcare team implement first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago and is now experiencing a severe headache, which could indicate postpartum preeclampsia. Checking if the client received anesthesia during delivery is crucial as certain types of anesthesia can increase the risk of postpartum preeclampsia. This step is important to determine if anesthesia is a contributing factor to the client's symptoms. Option A is incorrect because immediate action is needed to address the client's symptoms related to anesthesia. Option C is incorrect as reassessing vital signs alone may not provide information specific to the client's headache. Option D is incorrect as obtaining a hemoglobin and hematocrit would not directly address the client's headache or potential anesthesia-related issues.
Question 2 of 5
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get out of bed, eat, or participate in group therapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because sitting with the client and offering support without demanding participation is crucial in building trust and rapport. This approach respects the client's autonomy and allows them to feel supported without pressure. It also creates a safe space for the client to open up when they are ready. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Offering high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals does not address the core issue of the client's refusal to participate in therapy. B: Asking the client why they are not participating in therapy may come off as confrontational and could further discourage them from opening up. D: Encouraging the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness may be overwhelming for them at this stage and could lead to resistance.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. The rationale is that metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further decrease heart rate. With a low apical pulse of 58 beats/minute, administering metoprolol can potentially cause bradycardia or further slow down the heart rate to dangerous levels. Holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider allows for further assessment and potential adjustment of the dosage or consideration of alternative treatments. Incorrect choices: A: Administering the medication as prescribed can lead to bradycardia and potential harm to the client. C: Giving half the prescribed dose and rechecking the pulse in 30 minutes can still lead to further bradycardia and potential harm. D: Administering the medication and then rechecking the pulse in 30 minutes is not appropriate as the initial pulse rate is already low, and waiting to recheck could lead to adverse effects before intervention.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula. A bruit and thrill indicate proper blood flow through the AV fistula, essential for successful hemodialysis. Absence of these sounds can indicate AV fistula malfunction, leading to inadequate dialysis. Redness, pain, and swelling are common complications of AV fistula placement but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or accompanied by other symptoms like fever or pus drainage. Reporting the absence of a bruit or thrill promptly allows for timely intervention to prevent complications and ensure effective dialysis.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a foot ulcer. The nurse should recognize that which intervention is most critical in promoting healing of the foot ulcer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Strict control of blood glucose levels is critical in promoting healing of foot ulcers in diabetic patients. 2. High blood glucose levels can impair wound healing by affecting circulation and immune response. 3. Maintaining normal glucose levels helps optimize tissue repair and prevent further complications. 4. Regular dressing changes (B) are important but not as critical as controlling blood glucose levels. 5. Application of antibiotic ointment (C) may be necessary for infected ulcers, but not the most critical intervention. 6. Hydrotherapy treatment (D) can help with wound cleansing, but it is not as essential as controlling blood glucose levels.