A client's primary infection with HIV has subsided and an equilibrium now exists between HIV levels and the client's immune response. This is known as what physiologic state?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Viral set point. During this stage, the client's immune response has reached a balance with HIV levels, leading to a stable viral load. This term reflects the equilibrium between viral replication and immune control. A: The static stage implies an inactive phase, which does not accurately describe the dynamic balance in the viral set point. B: Latent stage refers to a period of inactivity in viral replication, not the balanced state described in the question. D: The window period is the time between infection and detectable levels of HIV antibodies, not the equilibrium between viral levels and immune response.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, acute lymphocytic leukemia. In this disease, bone marrow transplantation is not indicated as it is a systemic cancer affecting the blood and bone marrow itself. Transplanting diseased bone marrow would not be effective in treating the underlying cancer. In contrast, severe aplastic anemia (A) and severe combined immunodeficiency (B) are conditions where bone marrow transplantation can help replace dysfunctional bone marrow with healthy stem cells. Chronic myeloid leukemia (D) may also benefit from bone marrow transplantation as a treatment option to replace cancerous cells with healthy ones.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: An undetermined cause. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia often has an idiopathic or unknown cause. Here's a rationale: 1. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is a complex disorder with various underlying mechanisms, making it challenging to pinpoint a single cause. 2. While some cases may be associated with certain factors like drug use (choice C) or coexisting autoimmune disorders (choice B), these do not account for most cases. 3. Genetic anomalies (choice A) may play a role in some instances, but they do not universally cause autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 4. Choice D is the most appropriate as it acknowledges the complexity of the disorder and the fact that a significant portion of cases lack a clear, identifiable cause.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inadequate production of white blood cells. Anemia is specifically related to red blood cells and hemoglobin, not white blood cells. White blood cells are part of the immune system and are responsible for fighting infections, not oxygen transport. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they directly impact red blood cell count or hemoglobin levels, which are essential for oxygen transport in the body. Blood loss leads to a decrease in red blood cells, excessive destruction of red blood cells reduces the total count, and inadequate production of red blood cells results in a low number of functional cells.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood clotting factor transfusions. This is the appropriate treatment for bleeding episodes in people with hemophilia as they lack certain clotting factors. Transfusing these missing clotting factors helps to stop the bleeding. Explanation: 1. Aspirin (Choice A) is not recommended for hemophilia patients as it can increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. 2. Blood clotting drugs (Choice B) may not be as effective as transfusions of specific clotting factors in treating bleeding episodes in hemophilia. 3. Gene therapy (Choice C) is a promising treatment for hemophilia, but it is not yet widely available and may not be the immediate solution for acute bleeding episodes.