ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, and a drop in blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in Trendelenburg position. This is the first action to take in a client with suspected air embolism, a potential complication of central line insertion. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position with the head down and the legs elevated can help prevent air from reaching the heart and lungs. This action can help stabilize the client's condition before further interventions can be implemented. Stopping the TPN infusion (choice A) can be important, but the priority in this situation is to address the potential air embolism. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice B) can be done after the immediate intervention. Administering oxygen (choice D) is important, but placing the client in Trendelenburg position takes precedence in this emergency situation.
Question 2 of 5
When assessing a client reporting severe pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, which sign would most likely indicate appendicitis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point. McBurney's point is located in the right lower quadrant and is a classic sign of appendicitis. Rebound tenderness at this point indicates inflammation in the peritoneum, suggesting appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are not specific to appendicitis. Positive Murphy's sign is related to cholecystitis, Rovsing's sign is seen in acute appendicitis but is not as specific as rebound tenderness at McBurney's point, and Cullen's sign is associated with acute pancreatitis.
Question 3 of 5
A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because eating a snack when blood glucose is 70 mg/dl helps prevent hypoglycemia. Testing blood glucose once a week (A) is not frequent enough for proper management. Taking extra insulin when shaky (C) can lead to hypoglycemia. Skipping meals (D) can cause unstable blood glucose levels.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the safest intervention for a client with COPD. High flow rates can suppress the client's respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation. Choice A is incorrect because increasing oxygen flow rate without assessing the client's oxygen saturation can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as deep breathing and coughing can increase oxygen demand and worsen respiratory distress. Choice D is incorrect because oxygen should not be removed during eating or drinking, as it is essential for tissue oxygenation.
Question 5 of 5
The client with a history of heart failure is taking furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias in patients with heart failure. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications. Incorrect choices: A: Serum sodium - Furosemide may cause hyponatremia, but it is less critical compared to hypokalemia in a client with heart failure. C: Serum calcium - Furosemide does not directly affect calcium levels significantly in most cases. D: Serum magnesium - While furosemide can cause hypomagnesemia, monitoring potassium is more essential in this scenario due to its impact on cardiac function.