ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is being taught by a nurse. Which statement indicates that the client understands the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face." Nephrotic syndrome leads to increased permeability of the glomeruli, resulting in edema, especially in the face and dependent areas. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the teaching about nephrotic syndrome and gum bleeding.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is that the medication can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect of carbidopa/levodopa. This is due to the metabolites of levodopa. Immediate relief is not expected after taking the medication because it may take weeks to months to achieve the full therapeutic effect. Taking the medication with a high-protein food is not recommended as protein can interfere with the absorption of levodopa. Skipping a dose of the medication if the client experiences dizziness is incorrect as dizziness may be a side effect of the medication, and doses should not be skipped without consulting a healthcare provider.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.
Question 4 of 9
A client newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is being taught by a nurse. Which statement indicates that the client understands the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face." Nephrotic syndrome leads to increased permeability of the glomeruli, resulting in edema, especially in the face and dependent areas. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the teaching about nephrotic syndrome and gum bleeding.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but can lead to fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis compared to Caucasian or Asian descent. Choice D, obesity, is generally considered a protective factor against osteoporosis due to the increased mechanical loading on bones.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because inspecting the pin site every 4 hours is necessary but not the priority in this case. Choice C is incorrect as it is not essential for two personnel to hold the halo device during repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can actually increase the risk of skin issues by clogging pores and causing irritation.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig's sign?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A positive Kernig's sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding indicates meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig's sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, choice C refers to coordination issues, and choice D describes neck pain and stiffness, which are not specific to Kernig's sign.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse at a provider's office is interviewing a client who has multiple sclerosis and has been taking dantrolene for several months. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I don't have muscle spasms as frequently." The nurse should identify that dantrolene relaxes skeletal muscles, so a decrease in muscle spasms indicates the medication is effective. Choice B is incorrect as cold prevention is not related to dantrolene. Choice C is incorrect because nerve pain improvement is not a direct effect of dantrolene. Choice D is incorrect as dantrolene's action does not affect urination.