A client is undergoing chemotherapy and is at risk for developing thrombocytopenia. What precaution should the nurse teach the client to minimize the risk of bleeding?

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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

A client is undergoing chemotherapy and is at risk for developing thrombocytopenia. What precaution should the nurse teach the client to minimize the risk of bleeding?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use a soft-bristled toothbrush. Chemotherapy can cause low platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush can help prevent gum bleeding and trauma to the gums, reducing the risk of bleeding. Engaging in daily aerobic exercise (B) can increase the risk of injury and bleeding for a client with thrombocytopenia. Taking aspirin (C) can further decrease platelet function and increase bleeding risk. Using an electric razor (D) is recommended to prevent skin cuts and bleeding due to the fragile skin associated with chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia.

Question 2 of 9

The client with newly diagnosed osteoporosis is being taught by the nurse about dietary modifications. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase your intake of high-calcium foods. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density, and calcium is essential for bone health. Increasing calcium intake can help strengthen bones and prevent further bone loss. Foods high in calcium, such as dairy products, leafy green vegetables, and fortified foods, are beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis. Summary of other choices: B: Limiting intake of vitamin D-rich foods is not advised, as vitamin D plays a crucial role in calcium absorption and bone health. C: Avoiding foods high in phosphorus is not necessary, as phosphorus is also important for bone health and overall body function. D: Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended, as high sodium intake can lead to calcium loss from the bones, worsening osteoporosis.

Question 3 of 9

The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension. Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to low cortisol and aldosterone levels. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, causing melanin deposition. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, leading to sodium and water loss. Choice A is incorrect because Addison's disease does not typically present with hypertension or hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as exophthalmos and tachycardia are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are not common manifestations of Addison's disease.

Question 4 of 9

An elderly client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted to the hospital. Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect to find?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, increased serum creatinine level. In CHF, the heart's reduced pumping ability can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in impaired kidney function. This can cause an elevation in serum creatinine level, indicating decreased kidney function. Elevated serum sodium level (A) is not typically seen in CHF, as patients often have fluid retention leading to dilutional hyponatremia. Decreased BNP level (B) is not expected in CHF, as BNP is released in response to increased ventricular stretching and volume overload. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels (D) are not directly related to CHF; they may be seen in conditions like dehydration or chronic hypoxia, but not specifically in CHF.

Question 5 of 9

Which assessment finding indicates a client's readiness to leave the nursing unit for a bronchoscopy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Option C, on-call sedation administered, is the correct answer because sedation is essential for bronchoscopy to ensure the client is comfortable and cooperative during the procedure. Sedation helps reduce anxiety and discomfort, making the procedure more tolerable. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly indicate readiness for the procedure. Denying allergies to contrast media (A) is important but not specific to bronchoscopy readiness. Skin prep completion (B) is part of the pre-procedure preparation but does not confirm readiness. Oxygen administration (D) is a routine care measure and does not indicate readiness for bronchoscopy.

Question 6 of 9

A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard). Rationale: 1. The ECG rhythm shows regular narrow complex tachycardia, likely supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). 2. Adenosine is the first-line medication for terminating SVT by blocking conduction through the AV node. 3. Adenosine is given rapidly as a bolus dose followed by a saline flush to ensure quick delivery to the heart. 4. Adenosine has a very short half-life, making it safe to use in this scenario. Summary: A: Magnesium is not the first-line treatment for SVT. B: Heparin is not indicated for the management of SVT. D: Synchronized cardioversion is reserved for unstable patients with hemodynamic compromise, not indicated for stable SVT.

Question 7 of 9

A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Seizures. Seizures in a patient with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent brain damage or herniation. Headache (A), fever (B), and nuchal rigidity (C) are common symptoms of meningitis but do not pose an immediate threat to life like seizures do. Addressing the seizures first is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the patient's safety.

Question 8 of 9

In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten. This is crucial because the Braden scale assesses the client's risk for developing pressure ulcers. A score of ten indicates a very high risk, requiring frequent repositioning to prevent pressure ulcers. Choice A is incorrect because 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities indicates fluid overload, not directly related to turning schedule planning. Choice C is incorrect because warm, dry skin with a fever of 100‚° F suggests a possible infection, but does not affect the need for turning schedule planning. Choice D is incorrect as hypoactive bowel sounds and infrequent bowel movements are related to gastrointestinal function, not directly impacting the turning schedule.

Question 9 of 9

A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a non-confrontational and calming approach to de-escalate the situation. It helps redirect the client's focus and encourages self-regulation. Choice A may reinforce the aggressive behavior by rewarding it. Choice B (putting behavior on extinction) may escalate the situation further. Choice C (decreasing TV volume) does not address the client's behavior directly.

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