ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is to receive oxytocin to augment labor. Which finding contraindicates the initiation of the oxytocin infusion and should be reported to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Late decelerations indicate fetal distress, suggesting compromised oxygenation. Starting oxytocin can further stress the fetus, worsening decelerations. Report to prevent harm. B is incorrect as moderate variability is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. C is incorrect as cessation of uterine dilation may indicate uterine hyperstimulation, not fetal distress. D is incorrect as prolonged active labor phase alone doesn't necessarily contraindicate oxytocin, but it may require monitoring.
Question 2 of 9
When teaching a new mother how to use a bulb syringe to suction her newborn's secretions, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it is important to stop suctioning when the newborn's cry sounds clear to avoid causing unnecessary discomfort or injury. Step 1: Gently compress the bulb syringe. Step 2: Insert the tip into the nostril, not the mouth. Step 3: Release the bulb to suction out the secretions. Step 4: Repeat in the other nostril. Incorrect choices: A is incorrect because you should insert the syringe tip before compressing the bulb. B is incorrect as you should suction the mouth before the nose. C is incorrect as you should not insert the syringe tip in the center of the mouth.
Question 3 of 9
A client in a prenatal clinic is receiving education from a nurse and mentions, 'I don't like milk.' Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as a good source of calcium?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dark green leafy vegetables. Dark green leafy vegetables like kale, spinach, and broccoli are excellent sources of calcium. They provide a good alternative to dairy for those who don't like milk. These vegetables are rich in calcium, which is essential for bone health, especially during pregnancy. They also offer other nutrients like vitamin K and magnesium that support calcium absorption. Summary: B: Deep red or orange vegetables - While these vegetables are nutritious, they are not significant sources of calcium. C: White bread and rice - These foods do not provide a significant amount of calcium. D: Meat, poultry, and fish - While these foods are rich in protein and other nutrients, they are not primary sources of calcium.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare professional is providing information to a group of clients who are pregnant about measures to relieve backache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform the pelvic rock exercise every day. This exercise helps strengthen the core muscles, which can alleviate backache during pregnancy. It also promotes flexibility in the lower back and pelvis. Avoiding any lifting (A) is not a practical measure as some lifting may be necessary in daily activities. Performing Kegel exercises (B) strengthens pelvic floor muscles but does not directly address backache. Avoiding standing for prolonged periods (D) can help reduce backache but is not as effective as specific exercises targeting the back muscles like the pelvic rock exercise.
Question 5 of 9
A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to poor appetite and weight loss. 2. Eating foods that appeal to taste can help the client consume more calories and nutrients. 3. Balancing meals may not be a priority during hyperemesis gravidarum as the focus is on maintaining adequate nutrition. 4. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's nutritional needs or coping with hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 6 of 9
A client has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify and report as signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to respiratory depression (respirations less than 12/min), decreased urinary output (less than 25 mL/hr), and altered mental status (decreased level of consciousness). Respiratory depression occurs due to the impact of magnesium on the central nervous system. Decreased urinary output is a result of magnesium's effects on renal blood flow. Altered mental status is a common sign of magnesium toxicity affecting brain function. Reporting these signs promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect because they are all potential signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported.
Question 7 of 9
A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This statement is the correct teaching point because for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test during pregnancy, a blood glucose level of 130-140 mg/dL is considered elevated and may indicate gestational diabetes. The other choices are incorrect: A is wrong because the glucose solution is typically consumed one hour before the test, not prior to the test itself. B is incorrect as limiting carbohydrate intake is not necessary for this test. D is also incorrect because fasting for 8 hours is not required for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.
Question 8 of 9
During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately describes an episiotomy as an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus. This information is crucial for the client to understand the purpose and potential benefits of the procedure. A: While choice A is similar to the correct answer, it includes unnecessary detail about who makes the incision, which may confuse the client. B: Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area, which is not recommended as it would involve cutting through the anal sphincter. D: Choice D is incorrect because it introduces unnecessary information about the types of episiotomies without providing the basic understanding of what an episiotomy is.
Question 9 of 9
When caring for a client suspected of having hyperemesis gravidarum, which finding is a manifestation of this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to dehydration and ketonuria. Presence of urine ketones indicates fat breakdown due to inadequate calorie intake. Option A is within normal range for hemoglobin. Option C is within normal range for alanine aminotransferase. Option D is within normal range for blood glucose. Thus, the presence of urine ketones is the most indicative finding for hyperemesis gravidarum.