A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?

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ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions

Question 1 of 9

A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is specifically used to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus. Alpha-fetoprotein levels in the mother's blood can indicate the presence of such abnormalities. This test is typically done around 15-20 weeks of gestation. Choice B is incorrect because the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is not used to assess various markers of fetal well-being. Choice C is incorrect because it does not identify Rh incompatibility, which is typically detected through other tests. Choice D is incorrect because the test is not primarily for spinal defects, but rather for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities.

Question 2 of 9

A client who is postpartum received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fundus firm to palpation. Methylergonovine is a medication used to promote uterine contraction, which helps the uterus return to its pre-pregnancy size and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. When the fundus is firm to palpation, it indicates that the uterus is contracting effectively, which is the desired outcome of giving methylergonovine. A: Increase in blood pressure is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness in this context. C: Increase in lochia may be a sign of uterine involution but does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of methylergonovine. D: Reporting of absent breast pain is not a specific indicator of the medication's effectiveness related to uterine contraction.

Question 3 of 9

During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nipple line. This landmark is used for measuring newborn chest circumference as it ensures consistency in measurement and is a reliable reference point. The nipple line is anatomically consistent and easily identifiable, making it the ideal landmark for accurate measurements. Rationale: A: Sternal notch is not recommended for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not a consistent landmark and may vary among individuals. C: Xiphoid process is not suitable for chest circumference measurement as it is located at the lower end of the sternum and not commonly used for this purpose. D: Fifth intercostal space is not a recommended landmark for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not as reliable and consistent as the nipple line.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because urinary frequency is common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus. This symptom typically improves by the end of the first trimester, as the uterus rises and reduces pressure on the bladder. Therefore, telling the client that it occurs during the first trimester and near the end of pregnancy is accurate. Choice A is incorrect because urinary frequency should not be ignored as it could be a sign of a urinary tract infection or other underlying issue. Choice B is incorrect because it inaccurately suggests that urinary frequency only lasts until the 12th week and implies that poor bladder tone is the sole factor influencing this symptom. Choice C is incorrect because while it is true that individual experiences can vary, there are general patterns and timelines for common pregnancy symptoms like urinary frequency.

Question 5 of 9

A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Option C, having the client pant during the next contractions, is the correct answer. At 7 cm dilation with a sudden urge to push, it indicates possible fetal descent. Panting can help prevent rapid descent and reducing the risk of cervical edema or injury. It allows time for the cervix to dilate fully before pushing, preventing premature pushing and potential complications. Option A is not a priority at this stage. Option B is incorrect as observing for crowning might lead to premature pushing. Option D is not necessary as voiding is not the priority right now.

Question 6 of 9

A client is being cared for 2 hours after a spontaneous vaginal birth and has saturated two perineal pads with blood in a 30-minute period. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention at this time?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palpate the client's uterine fundus. Palpating the uterine fundus is crucial to assess for uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. If the fundus is boggy or deviated, it indicates uterine atony and immediate interventions are needed. B: Assisting the client to a bedpan to urinate is important, but addressing the potential cause of excessive bleeding takes precedence. C: Administering oxytocic medication may be necessary to help stimulate uterine contractions, but assessing the fundus comes first to determine the underlying cause of bleeding. D: Increasing fluid intake is not the priority in this situation. Palpating the fundus and addressing potential hemorrhage are the immediate concerns.

Question 7 of 9

A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the changes she should expect when planning to become pregnant. Identify the correct sequence of maternal changes. A. Amenorrhea B.Lightening C. Goodell's sign D. Quickening

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence of maternal changes when planning to become pregnant is A) Amenorrhea, C) Goodell's sign, D) Quickening, and B) Lightening. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation, indicating possible pregnancy. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix and vagina. Quickening is the first fetal movements felt by the mother. Lightening occurs as the baby drops lower into the pelvis. This sequence reflects the chronological order of physiological changes during pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C do not follow the correct sequence of maternal changes as outlined in pregnancy progression.

Question 8 of 9

A client who underwent an amniotomy is now in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement with this client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Encourage the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours. This is important to prevent bladder distention, which can impede fetal descent and progression of labor. A: Maintaining the client in the lithotomy position is unnecessary and may be uncomfortable. B: Performing frequent vaginal examinations increases the risk of infection and should be minimized. C: Reminding the client to bear down with each contraction is not appropriate during the active phase of the first stage of labor as it can lead to exhaustion and prolonged labor.

Question 9 of 9

A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Painless red vaginal bleeding. This finding supports the diagnosis of placenta previa due to the characteristic symptom of painless bleeding in the third trimester. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to dilate. The other choices are incorrect because increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus (B) may indicate placental abruption, abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding (C) is not typical of placenta previa, and intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus (D) is more suggestive of preterm labor or bloody show.

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