ATI LPN
Lpn ATI Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 2,900/mm3 indicates leukopenia, which is a serious side effect of clozapine and contraindicates its use. Leukopenia is a significant concern with clozapine therapy due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Monitoring the WBC count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. The other options (B, C, and D) are within normal ranges and not contraindications for administering clozapine.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Furrows in the tongue.' Dehydration commonly presents with furrows in the tongue due to decreased oral moisture. This physical finding indicates dehydration as the tongue loses moisture and becomes dry. Choice A, 'Bradycardia,' is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, tachycardia may be present as a compensatory mechanism. Elevated blood pressure, as mentioned in choice B, is not a typical finding in dehydration; in fact, dehydration often leads to a decrease in blood pressure. Polyuria, as in choice D, is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus, rather than dehydration.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's capillary blood glucose level every 4 hours. Clients receiving TPN are at risk for hyperglycemia, so regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to detect and manage hyperglycemia promptly. Administering TPN through a peripheral IV catheter (Choice A) is incorrect as TPN should be given through a central venous catheter to prevent complications. Heating the TPN solution to room temperature (Choice C) is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Weighing the client every 3 days (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid status but is not the priority action when caring for a client receiving TPN.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. In SIADH, there is excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Polyuria (choice A) is increased urination, which is not a typical finding in SIADH. Dehydration (choice B) is the loss of body fluids, which is opposite to the fluid retention seen in SIADH. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is elevated blood sugar levels and is not directly related to SIADH.