ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is prescribed propranolol. Which of the following client history findings would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, should be avoided in clients with asthma as it can cause bronchoconstriction due to its beta2-blocking effects. Therefore, a client history finding of asthma would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription. Hypertension, tachydysrhythmias, and urolithiasis are not contraindications for propranolol use, making them incorrect choices. For clients with asthma, a beta1 selective blocker would be preferred to avoid exacerbating bronchoconstriction.
Question 2 of 5
A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.
Question 3 of 5
A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can increase potassium levels in the body. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid potassium supplements to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not have significant interactions with lisinopril that would lead to adverse effects like hyperkalemia.
Question 5 of 5
A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.