ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent respiratory complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assisting the client with early ambulation is crucial in preventing respiratory complications after abdominal surgery. Early ambulation helps to prevent conditions like atelectasis and pneumonia by promoting lung expansion and preventing pooling of respiratory secretions. It also aids in improving circulation, reducing the risk of deep vein thrombosis, and enhancing overall recovery. Instructing the client to exhale into an incentive spirometer (Choice A) is beneficial for lung expansion but is more focused on respiratory therapy rather than preventing complications. Repositioning the client every 8 hours (Choice B) is important for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing respiratory complications. Maintaining the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours (Choice D) can lead to complications such as atelectasis, pneumonia, and deep vein thrombosis due to decreased lung expansion and mobility.
Question 2 of 5
A client is receiving discharge teaching after a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should be included?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis, the client should avoid bending their hips more than 90 degrees. Excessive bending at the hips can increase the risk of hip dislocation, which is a significant concern following total hip arthroplasty. Sitting with crossed legs at the ankles (choice A) can also increase the risk of hip dislocation and should be avoided. Sitting in a low-seated chair (choice C) can make it more challenging for the client to stand up safely. Twisting the body when standing up (choice D) can also strain the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation. Therefore, the correct instruction to include during discharge teaching is to avoid bending the hips more than 90 degrees.
Question 3 of 5
A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30° is the correct action to take when a client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. This position helps prevent aspiration of the enteral feedings into the lungs, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, elevating the head of the bed promotes proper digestion and absorption of the feedings by utilizing gravity to facilitate movement into the stomach and through the gastrointestinal tract. Flushing the tube with water every 2 hours (Choice B) is not necessary for continuous feedings and may disrupt the feeding schedule. Replacing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours (Choice C) is not the standard recommendation unless there are specific concerns or complications. Checking the client's gastric residual every 8 hours (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare professional is supervising a newly licensed colleague who is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed colleague requires intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Administering an intramuscular injection at a 90° angle is essential for proper medication delivery into the muscle tissue. Injecting at a 45° angle is incorrect for intramuscular injections and is typically used for subcutaneous injections where the needle is inserted into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Choice A is correct as selecting a 25-gauge needle is appropriate for an intramuscular injection. Choice C is also correct as the ventrogluteal site is a suitable site for intramuscular injections. Choice D is correct as aspirating for blood return is a necessary step to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel before injecting the medication.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.