ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rubella immunization should be given shortly after giving birth to prevent any potential harm to the fetus during pregnancy. Immunization during pregnancy is contraindicated to avoid any risk of harm to the developing baby. Option B is incorrect as immunization in the third trimester can still pose a risk to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as immediate immunization during pregnancy is not recommended. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current fetus.
Question 2 of 5
While observing the electronic fetal heart rate monitor tracing for a client at 40 weeks of gestation in labor, a nurse should suspect a problem with the umbilical cord when she observes which of the following patterns?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Variable decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate that coincide with contractions, indicating umbilical cord compression. This pattern can lead to fetal hypoxia and distress. Early decelerations (A) are gradual decreases in heart rate that mirror contractions and are considered benign. Accelerations (B) are increases in heart rate and are a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. Late decelerations (C) are gradual decreases in heart rate that occur after the peak of a contraction, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency.
Question 3 of 5
A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Deep tendon reflexes of +1. In preeclampsia, deep tendon reflexes are typically hyperactive, not diminished (+1). This indicates hyporeflexia, which is inconsistent with preeclampsia. A is consistent with preeclampsia, as mild edema is common. B is also consistent, as proteinuria is a hallmark sign. C is consistent, as elevated blood pressure is a key feature. Therefore, D is the only choice that does not align with the expected findings in preeclampsia.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer vitamin K by IM injection to a newborn. The medication should be administered into which of the following muscles?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vastus lateralis. This muscle is the preferred site for IM injections in newborns due to its large muscle mass and minimal risk of damage to nerves and blood vessels. Administering vitamin K in the vastus lateralis ensures proper absorption and distribution of the medication. Ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are not recommended for newborns due to the risk of sciatic nerve damage and limited muscle mass. The deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults, not newborns.
Question 5 of 5
A client who underwent an amniotomy is now in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement with this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Encourage the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours. This is important to prevent bladder distention, which can impede fetal descent and progression of labor. A: Maintaining the client in the lithotomy position is unnecessary and may be uncomfortable. B: Performing frequent vaginal examinations increases the risk of infection and should be minimized. C: Reminding the client to bear down with each contraction is not appropriate during the active phase of the first stage of labor as it can lead to exhaustion and prolonged labor.