ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transition. Transition phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 8 to 10 cm. This phase is characterized by intense contractions close together, increased rectal pressure, and emotional changes. The client in this scenario has contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and the cervix is dilated to 9 cm. This aligns with the characteristics of the transition phase. Summary: A: Active phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 4 to 7 cm. C: Latent phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 0 to 3 cm. D: Descent phase is not a recognized phase of labor.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydatidiform mole. At 4 months of gestation, prune-colored discharge indicates possible passage of vesicular tissue characteristic of a molar pregnancy. This, along with continued nausea, vomiting, and larger fundal height, are signs of a hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (A) typically involves severe nausea and vomiting leading to weight loss, which the client did not experience. Threatened abortion (B) presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping, not prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (D) is characterized by regular contractions leading to cervical changes, not the symptoms described.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV to a client who is in preterm labor. Available is 20 g of magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W). How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the mL/hr for the IV infusion pump, we need to use the formula: (Desired dose in mg/hr * Volume of solution in mL) / Concentration of solution in mg/mL. Given: Desired dose = 2 g/hr = 2000 mg/hr Volume of solution = 500 mL Concentration of solution = 20 g in 500 mL = 20,000 mg in 500 mL = 40 mg/mL Now, plug these values into the formula: (2000 mg/hr * 500 mL) / 40 mg/mL = 25,000 mL/hr Round this to the nearest whole number, which is 25,000 mL/hr ≈ 50 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV infusion pump should be set to administer 50 mL/hr, making choice C the correct answer. Option A (60 mL/hr) and Option D (80 mL/hr) are incorrect as they do not match the calculated value. Option
Question 4 of 9
A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation is reviewing a new prescription of ferrous sulfate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I plan to drink more orange juice while taking this pill." Orange juice is rich in vitamin C, which enhances the absorption of iron from ferrous sulfate, helping to combat iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy. Taking the pill with a vitamin C source is important for optimal absorption. A: Taking the pill with breakfast may not provide enough vitamin C for optimal absorption. B: Milk may inhibit iron absorption due to its calcium content, so it is not ideal to take with ferrous sulfate. D: While increasing calcium-rich foods is important during pregnancy, it is not directly related to enhancing iron absorption from ferrous sulfate.
Question 5 of 9
When caring for a client in labor, which of the following infections can be treated during labor or immediately following birth? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. All three infections - Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, and HIV - can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. Antibiotics can be administered for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia, while antiretroviral medications can be given for HIV. Prompt treatment is crucial to reduce the risk of vertical transmission. The other choices are incorrect because each infection listed can be effectively managed during labor or post-birth, making choice D the most comprehensive and accurate option.
Question 6 of 9
A client in a prenatal clinic is pregnant and experiencing episodes of maternal hypotension. The client asks the nurse what causes these episodes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: This is due to the weight of the uterus on the vena cava. Maternal hypotension during pregnancy can occur when the growing uterus compresses the vena cava, reducing blood flow back to the heart and causing a drop in blood pressure. This compression can lead to decreased blood flow to the brain and other vital organs, resulting in symptoms of hypotension. The other choices are incorrect because: A: An increase in blood volume during pregnancy typically leads to an increase in blood pressure, not hypotension. B: Pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm may cause discomfort or shortness of breath but is not the primary cause of maternal hypotension. D: Increased cardiac output is a normal adaptation in pregnancy to meet the demands of the growing fetus and placenta, but it does not directly cause maternal hypotension.
Question 7 of 9
During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the acoustic vibration device is used during a nonstress test to wake up a sleeping fetus, ensuring that the baby is active and responsive during the test. This helps to assess the baby's well-being and monitor its heart rate patterns. Choice A is incorrect as the device does not stimulate uterine contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it does not decrease the incidence of contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the device does not lull the fetus to sleep, but rather ensures the fetus is awake and moving during the test.
Question 8 of 9
A client who is at 22 weeks gestation is being educated by a nurse about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: You should empty your bladder before the procedure. This is important because a full bladder can obstruct the visualization of the fetus during amniocentesis. By emptying the bladder, the uterus is better positioned for the procedure, making it safer and more effective. Explanation: 1. A (You will lie on your right side during the procedure) is incorrect because the position during amniocentesis is typically on the back or slightly tilted to the left. 2. B (You should not eat anything for 24 hours before the procedure) is incorrect as fasting is not required for amniocentesis. 3. D (The test is performed to determine gestational age) is incorrect as amniocentesis is used to detect genetic abnormalities, not gestational age.
Question 9 of 9
A client at 8 weeks of gestation with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. Which beverage should the nurse reinforce the client to take the supplements with for better absorption?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orange juice. Vitamin C enhances iron absorption by converting non-heme iron to a more absorbable form. The acidity in orange juice aids in this process. Ice water (choice A) does not contain any nutrients to enhance iron absorption. Low-fat or whole milk (choice B) contains calcium, which can inhibit iron absorption. Tea or coffee (choice C) contains tannins that can also inhibit iron absorption. In summary, orange juice is the best choice due to its vitamin C content that helps improve iron absorption.