ATI LPN
Integumentary System Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. The nurse should place priority on assessment of which item?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood pressure and oxygen saturation. Assessing blood pressure and oxygen saturation is crucial in a client experiencing frequent premature ventricular contractions to monitor for signs of hemodynamic instability and hypoxia. This assessment helps determine the client's cardiovascular status and oxygenation levels, which are essential in managing and preventing complications associated with arrhythmias. Sensation of palpitations (A) is important, but assessing vital signs takes precedence. Causative factors like caffeine (B) and precipitating factors such as infection (D) are relevant but should be addressed after ensuring the client's immediate physiological needs are met.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has herpes zoster (shingles) and is being treated with acyclovir (Zovirax). What should the nurse do when administering this drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use gloves. When administering acyclovir for herpes zoster, the nurse should wear gloves to prevent the spread of the virus and protect themselves from potential exposure. This is important for infection control and to maintain proper hygiene practices. Applying lightly (A) could increase the risk of spreading the virus. Wrapping in warm wet dressings (B) is not recommended as it can create a warm and moist environment, which may exacerbate the infection. Rubbing the medication into lesions (D) is not necessary and could cause discomfort to the patient. Using gloves ensures safety for both the patient and the healthcare provider.
Question 3 of 5
Which may indicate a malignant melanoma in a nevus on a patient's arm?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Irregular border of the mole. An irregular border in a nevus can be a sign of malignant melanoma due to its lack of defined edges. This irregularity is a key indicator of potential cancerous growth. Even coloring (A) and symmetry (D) are typically associated with benign moles, while a decrease in size (B) may not necessarily indicate malignancy as size can fluctuate in both benign and malignant nevi.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with psoriasis is placed on PUVA therapy. What factors compose this therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C - Artificial ultraviolet (UV) rays and a coal tar product. PUVA therapy involves combining a photosensitizing medication (psoralen) with exposure to UVA light. The psoralen makes the skin more sensitive to UVA light, which helps to treat psoriasis. Choice A is incorrect because corticosteroids are not typically used in PUVA therapy. Choice B is incorrect because X-rays and methotrexate are not components of PUVA therapy. Choice D is incorrect because laser treatment and antimetabolites are not part of PUVA therapy. In summary, PUVA therapy consists of artificial UV rays and a coal tar product to treat psoriasis effectively.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse differentiates the various types of dermatitis. Which characteristic best describes stasis dermatitis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Erythema and pruritus with scaling associated with phlebitis. Stasis dermatitis is caused by venous insufficiency leading to pooling of blood in the lower extremities. This results in inflammation of the skin, presenting as erythema (redness), pruritus (itching), and scaling. The association with phlebitis indicates involvement of the veins. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately describe stasis dermatitis. Choice A refers to contact dermatitis, choice C describes seborrheic dermatitis, and choice D is more characteristic of allergic contact dermatitis.