ATI LPN
Lpn ATI Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is having difficulty voiding after removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This action helps stimulate voiding post-catheterization by promoting relaxation and providing sensory input. Assessing for bladder distention after 6 hours (Choice A) is important but not the immediate intervention needed for difficulty voiding. Encouraging the client to use a bedpan in the supine position (Choice B) may not effectively address the issue of post-catheterization voiding difficulty. Restricting the client's intake of oral fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate and can lead to dehydration, which is not helpful in promoting voiding.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is teaching dietary guidelines to a client who has celiac disease. Which of the following food choices is appropriate for the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, potato pancakes. Individuals with celiac disease must avoid gluten-containing foods. Potato pancakes are gluten-free, making them a suitable choice for someone with celiac disease. Choice A, white flour tortillas, contains gluten from wheat flour, making it unsuitable for a client with celiac disease. Choice C, wheat crackers, also contain gluten and should be avoided. Choice D, canned barley soup, contains barley which is a gluten-containing grain and is not appropriate for someone with celiac disease.
Question 3 of 9
What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.
Question 4 of 9
What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.
Question 5 of 9
What are the primary differences between left-sided and right-sided heart failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Left-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Right-sided: Systemic edema." Left-sided heart failure primarily affects the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion, which manifests as symptoms like shortness of breath and cough. On the other hand, right-sided heart failure causes systemic congestion and edema, often presenting as swelling in the legs and abdomen due to fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because it swaps the features of left-sided and right-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as it also incorrectly switches the characteristics of the two types of heart failure. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately associates left-sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and right-sided heart failure with heart failure itself, which is not a distinguishing feature.
Question 6 of 9
A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Furrows in the tongue.' Dehydration commonly presents with furrows in the tongue due to decreased oral moisture. This physical finding indicates dehydration as the tongue loses moisture and becomes dry. Choice A, 'Bradycardia,' is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, tachycardia may be present as a compensatory mechanism. Elevated blood pressure, as mentioned in choice B, is not a typical finding in dehydration; in fact, dehydration often leads to a decrease in blood pressure. Polyuria, as in choice D, is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus, rather than dehydration.
Question 8 of 9
What are the key interventions for managing a patient with asthma?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer bronchodilators and monitor oxygen levels. Asthma management involves using bronchodilators to help open the airways and improve breathing. Monitoring oxygen levels is essential to ensure the patient is getting enough oxygen. Choice B, encouraging deep breathing exercises, can be helpful for some respiratory conditions but is not a key intervention for managing an acute asthma attack. Choice C, providing corticosteroids and monitoring for respiratory distress, is important for long-term asthma management and severe exacerbations but is not the immediate key intervention during an acute attack. Choice D, providing antihistamines and monitoring blood pressure, is not typically indicated for asthma management as asthma is primarily an airway disease, not a histamine-mediated condition.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk for injury for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Using a bed exit alarm system. A bed exit alarm alerts staff when a client with dementia attempts to leave the bed, reducing the risk of falls. Choice B is incorrect because raising all four side rails can lead to restraint-related injuries and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as applying wrist restraints should be avoided due to the risk of injury and decreased mobility. Choice D is incorrect as dimming the lights in the client's room does not directly address the risk of injury associated with dementia.