A client is exhibiting tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and a feeling of letdown after childbirth. Which of the following conditions is associated with these manifestations?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum blues. This temporary condition occurs in the first few days after childbirth and is characterized by symptoms like tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and feeling letdown. Here's the rationale: 1. Postpartum blues are common and typically resolve within a few days to a week postpartum. 2. The symptoms mentioned align with the typical presentation of postpartum blues, which includes mood swings, irritability, and crying spells. 3. Postpartum fatigue (choice A) is a general symptom post-childbirth but does not specifically encompass the emotional and psychological symptoms described. 4. Postpartum psychosis (choice B) is a severe condition characterized by hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking, which are not present in the client's presentation. 5. Letting-go phase (choice C) refers to the process of detachment from the pregnancy and accepting the reality of the newborn, but it does not encompass the specific symptoms described in

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Appropriate for gestational age. A newborn is considered appropriate for gestational age when their weight falls within the 10th to 90th percentiles for their gestational age. In this case, the newborn is in the 60th percentile for weight, indicating that the weight is appropriate for the gestational age of 38 weeks. Choice A: Low birth weight is incorrect because a newborn is classified as low birth weight when their weight is below 2,500 g regardless of gestational age. Choice C: Small for gestational age is incorrect because a newborn is classified as small for gestational age when their weight is below the 10th percentile for their gestational age. Choice D: Large for gestational age is incorrect because a newborn is classified as large for gestational age when their weight is above the 90th percentile for their gestational age.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Epstein's pearls. These small pearly white nodules are commonly found on the roof of newborns' mouths and are considered a normal finding. They are formed from trapped epithelial cells during the development of the baby's mouth. They are harmless and typically resolve on their own without treatment. A: Mongolian spots are bluish-black or bruise-like markings found on the skin, not in the mouth. B: Milia spots are small, white, raised bumps on the skin, not found in the mouth. C: Erythema toxicum is a common benign rash in newborns, not related to the mouth. In summary, Epstein's pearls are the correct answer due to their specific location in the newborn's mouth, their appearance, and the fact that they are a normal finding in newborns. The other choices are incorrect as they describe different conditions not related to the oral cavity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the Moro reflex is elicited by sudden head movement or loud noise, causing the infant to extend their arms, then bring them back in a hugging motion. By holding the newborn in a semi-sitting position and allowing their head and trunk to fall backward, the nurse can observe the Moro reflex. Choices A, B, and C do not correctly elicit the Moro reflex as they involve different stimuli or movements that do not trigger the characteristic response of arm extension followed by flexion.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: This is more commonly seen in newborns who have dark skin. The bluish-brown marking described is likely a Mongolian spot, a common birthmark in darker-skinned infants. It is not related to hyperbilirubinemia (jaundice), forceps marks, or birth trauma. Mongolian spots are benign and typically fade over time. This statement is correct as it addresses the specific characteristic of the marking and its association with dark skin pigmentation in newborns.