A client is being taught about prescribed asthma medications. Which of the following medications should the client use for treatment of an acute asthma attack?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Albuterol is the correct choice for treating acute asthma attacks because it is a short-acting bronchodilator that provides quick relief by relaxing the muscles in the airways. Beclomethasone (choice A) and Salmeterol (choice B) are long-acting medications used for controlling and preventing asthma symptoms but are not for immediate relief during an acute attack. Montelukast (choice D) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for asthma maintenance therapy and not for acute asthma attacks.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and agitation in clients with dementia should be addressed immediately as they can indicate underlying causes such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs. Addressing these symptoms promptly can help prevent the escalation of behavioral issues and improve the client's quality of life. While frequent episodes of wandering at night, mild confusion during the day, and incontinence are also important issues to address in clients with dementia, restlessness and agitation usually require immediate attention to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is considered the best predictor of future violent actions as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts again. Option A, experiencing delusions, although it can impact behavior, is not as strong of a predictor as past violent behavior. Option B, male gender, is a demographic factor but not as specific or predictive as a history of violence. Option D, a history of being in prison, may indicate past behavior but is not directly linked to future violent actions as a known history of violence.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing interventions for a patient with neutropenia include monitoring for signs of infection and administering antibiotics. Neutropenia is characterized by a low neutrophil count, which increases the risk of infections. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt treatment, while administering antibiotics helps prevent or treat any infections that may occur. Isolating the patient and providing a low-microbial diet (Choice B) are not necessary unless the patient develops an active infection. Monitoring vital signs and avoiding unnecessary invasive procedures (Choice C) are important but do not specifically address the increased infection risk in neutropenic patients. Encouraging the patient to engage in social activities (Choice D) is not appropriate for a neutropenic patient due to the risk of exposure to infectious agents.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: After a bronchoscopy, the nurse's priority is to check for a gag reflex. This action helps assess the client's ability to protect their airway after sedation. Maintaining airway patency is crucial post-procedure. Monitoring oxygen levels is important but ensuring airway protection takes precedence. Encouraging the client to eat and administering IV fluids are essential aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sepsis and respiratory failure. Untreated pneumonia can lead to severe complications such as sepsis, which is a life-threatening response to infection, and respiratory failure, where the lungs can no longer provide enough oxygen to the body. Heart failure and kidney failure (choice B) are not direct complications of untreated pneumonia. Pulmonary embolism and electrolyte imbalance (choice C) are also not commonly associated with untreated pneumonia. Liver failure and electrolyte imbalance (choice D) are not typical complications of pneumonia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. This is crucial because addressing the underlying cause can help in resolving delirium more effectively. Administering sedative or antipsychotic medications without addressing the root cause may not be helpful and can even worsen the condition. Limiting environmental stimulation, although important, is not the primary step in managing delirium.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, it is indicative of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. The next step for the nurse should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Applying a cold compress may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Monitoring for infection is important, but in this case, the presence of redness and warmth suggests phlebitis, not infection. Increasing the IV flow rate can exacerbate the inflammation and should be avoided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the absence of insulin production, while Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes is not related to insulin resistance. Choice C is inaccurate as Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune while Type 2 diabetes is more associated with lifestyle factors. Choice D is not correct since insulin therapy is primarily used in Type 1 diabetes, whereas diet modification is a common approach in managing Type 2 diabetes.