ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. Implantable progestins are hormonal contraceptives known to cause common adverse effects such as nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain. Nausea is a common side effect due to hormonal changes. Irregular vaginal bleeding can occur as a result of hormonal imbalance. Weight gain is a known side effect associated with progestin use. Therefore, all of the listed adverse effects should be included in the client education. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass the full range of potential adverse effects associated with implantable progestins.
Question 2 of 9
In a prenatal clinic, a client in the first trimester of pregnancy has a health record that includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this information? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The data "G3 T1 P0 A1 L1" indicates the client has had 3 pregnancies (G3), 1 term delivery (T1), 0 preterm deliveries (P0), 1 living child (A1), and 1 living child currently (L1). Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client has one living child (A1) from one term delivery (T1). Choice D ("ALL OF THE ABOVE - has one living child") is correct as it summarizes the information accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not encompass all the aspects of the data provided in the client's health record.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an axillary temperature of 37.7°C (99.9°F) in a newborn is above the normal range and could indicate a fever, which is a significant concern in newborns due to their immature immune systems. Fever in newborns can be a sign of serious infections that require immediate medical attention. A: Erythema toxicum is a common rash in newborns and typically resolves on its own without medical intervention. B: Failure to pass meconium stool by 48 hours may be a concern but not as urgent as a fever. C: Pink-tinged urine in the first few days of life is likely due to uric acid crystals and is considered normal in newborns.
Question 4 of 9
A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. Implantable progestins are hormonal contraceptives known to cause common adverse effects such as nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain. Nausea is a common side effect due to hormonal changes. Irregular vaginal bleeding can occur as a result of hormonal imbalance. Weight gain is a known side effect associated with progestin use. Therefore, all of the listed adverse effects should be included in the client education. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass the full range of potential adverse effects associated with implantable progestins.
Question 5 of 9
A client who is 3 days postpartum is receiving education on effective breastfeeding. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Your newborn should appear content after each feeding. This is important as it indicates the baby is getting enough milk and is satisfied. If the baby appears content, it suggests effective breastfeeding. Choice A is incorrect as milk transition typically occurs within a few days, not 10. Choice B is incorrect as breasts feeling firm is not a reliable indicator of successful breastfeeding. Choice C is incorrect as the number of wet diapers is a better indicator of proper hydration, not just urination frequency.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ectopic pregnancy. Given the client's symptoms of right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, missed menstrual cycle, and presence of an intrauterine device, these are classic signs of an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube, leading to abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Missed abortion would typically present with cramping, bleeding, and passage of tissue. C: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. D: Hydatidiform mole would typically present with vaginal bleeding and uterine enlargement, but not the sharp abdominal pain described.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the FHR continuously. This is essential in preeclampsia as magnesium sulfate can affect fetal heart rate (FHR). Continuous monitoring helps detect any changes promptly. A: Monitoring blood pressure is important but not as critical as FHR monitoring in this scenario. B: Restricting total hourly intake to 200 mL is not necessary for magnesium sulfate administration. D: Administering protamine sulfate is incorrect as it is used for heparin toxicity, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Question 8 of 9
A client who received carboprost for postpartum hemorrhage is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Carboprost is a prostaglandin used to treat postpartum hemorrhage that can cause hypertension as an adverse effect due to its vasoconstrictive properties. This can lead to increased blood pressure, which should be monitored closely. Hypothermia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of carboprost. Constipation (choice C) and muscle weakness (choice D) are also not typically associated with carboprost use. Monitoring blood pressure and signs of hypertension is crucial due to the potential adverse effects of carboprost.
Question 9 of 9
When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dizziness. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension, leading to dizziness. This is a common side effect and needs to be monitored to prevent falls or injury. Blood-tinged sputum (A) is not typically associated with nifedipine use. Pallor (C) is not a common manifestation of nifedipine side effects. Somnolence (D) is also not a common side effect of nifedipine. Dizziness is the most relevant and potentially harmful manifestation to monitor for in a client receiving nifedipine for preterm labor.