A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B Questions

Question 1 of 9

A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.

Question 2 of 9

A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

Question 3 of 9

A healthcare professional is assessing a client for potential complications after surgery. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor for?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased urine output can indicate renal complications or dehydration, which are common post-surgical complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for detecting early signs of kidney dysfunction or fluid imbalances. Increased appetite, improved mobility, and normal temperature are not typical signs of immediate post-surgical complications and would not be the priority for monitoring in this case.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who is disoriented and has a history of falls. What actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct actions for the nurse to take involve ensuring patient safety and fall prevention measures. Choice B is the correct answer because instructing the patient to use the call light allows them to signal for help, applying an ambulation alarm helps detect movement, and checking on the patient hourly increases monitoring frequency. These actions are essential for preventing falls in a disoriented patient with a history of falls. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A does not provide adequate monitoring or fall prevention measures, C relies solely on assigning a sitter without utilizing technological aids, and D lacks continuous monitoring and specific fall prevention strategies.

Question 5 of 9

A healthcare provider is providing education on the use of clozapine. Which of the following should be included?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A nurse should include monitoring for agranulocytosis when educating a patient about clozapine. Clozapine is known to cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening decrease in white blood cells. This adverse effect requires close monitoring to detect it early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clozapine is not a first-line treatment for most conditions, it is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, and it is known to have a risk for metabolic syndrome.

Question 6 of 9

A charge nurse is preparing an educational session about addictive disorders for nursing staff. Which of the following should the nurse include as an etiological factor of addictive disorder?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Addiction is influenced by various factors, including low self-esteem, family history of addiction, and specific personality traits. Low self-esteem can lead individuals to seek solace in substances, a family history of addiction can increase the likelihood of developing addictive behaviors due to genetic and environmental factors, and certain personality disorders may contribute to addictive tendencies. Therefore, all the factors listed in choices A, B, and C can play a role in the development of addictive disorders. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because addictive disorders are multifactorial, and it is essential to consider a combination of influences rather than isolating a single factor.

Question 7 of 9

A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, meaning it can cause kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is essential to assess kidney function and detect any signs of nephrotoxicity. Blood glucose levels (choice A) are not directly affected by vancomycin. INR levels (choice C) are typically monitored for clients on anticoagulants, not vancomycin. Liver function tests (choice D) are not primarily affected by vancomycin use; kidney function is of greater concern.

Question 8 of 9

A client has been prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client to monitor for signs of toxicity?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Lithium toxicity can present with symptoms such as tremors, nausea, and blurred vision. Tremors are a common early sign of lithium toxicity and should be monitored closely. While nausea and vomiting can also occur with lithium toxicity, tremors are more specific to lithium toxicity. Increased urination is not typically associated with lithium toxicity, and blurred vision is less common compared to tremors in this context.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client. Which of the following findings indicates a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A TPN solution with an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top indicates that the solution is 'cracked' and should not be used as it may have separated or deteriorated. This finding suggests a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering. Options B, C, and D are normal aspects of TPN administration. Option B confirms the presence of essential components in the TPN solution, option C provides information about the preparation time, and option D ensures proper identification and matching of the TPN with the correct client.

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