ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is being cared for 2 hours after a spontaneous vaginal birth and has saturated two perineal pads with blood in a 30-minute period. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palpate the client's uterine fundus. Palpating the uterine fundus is crucial to assess for uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. If the fundus is boggy or deviated, it indicates uterine atony and immediate interventions are needed. B: Assisting the client to a bedpan to urinate is important, but addressing the potential cause of excessive bleeding takes precedence. C: Administering oxytocic medication may be necessary to help stimulate uterine contractions, but assessing the fundus comes first to determine the underlying cause of bleeding. D: Increasing fluid intake is not the priority in this situation. Palpating the fundus and addressing potential hemorrhage are the immediate concerns.
Question 2 of 9
A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C, having the client pant during the next contractions, is the correct answer. At 7 cm dilation with a sudden urge to push, it indicates possible fetal descent. Panting can help prevent rapid descent and reducing the risk of cervical edema or injury. It allows time for the cervix to dilate fully before pushing, preventing premature pushing and potential complications. Option A is not a priority at this stage. Option B is incorrect as observing for crowning might lead to premature pushing. Option D is not necessary as voiding is not the priority right now.
Question 3 of 9
A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions. In active labor, contractions typically last around 60 seconds each and occur about 2-5 minutes apart. With contractions 4 minutes apart, a 3-minute rest between contractions aligns with the expected pattern. Choice A is incorrect as the rest between contractions is too long. Choice B is incorrect as a contraction lasting 4 minutes is not typical in labor. Choice D is incorrect as the duration of contractions is shorter than expected in active labor. Therefore, Choice C is the most fitting pattern based on the frequency and duration of contractions during labor.
Question 4 of 9
A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing extra blankets from the baby's crib reduces the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby on the stomach (Option A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Option C) can also increase the risk of suffocation. Placing the crib next to a heater (Option D) can lead to overheating and poses a fire hazard. Removing extra blankets ensures a safe sleep environment for the baby.
Question 5 of 9
When advising a woman considering pregnancy on nutritional needs to reduce the risk of giving birth to a newborn with a neural tube defect, what information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consume foods fortified with folic acid. Folic acid plays a crucial role in preventing neural tube defects in newborns. It is recommended that women of childbearing age consume 400 mcg of folic acid daily to reduce the risk. Foods fortified with folic acid include cereals, bread, and pasta. A: Limit alcohol consumption - While important for overall health, alcohol consumption is not directly related to preventing neural tube defects. B: Increase intake of iron-rich foods - Iron is essential during pregnancy, but it is not specifically linked to reducing the risk of neural tube defects. D: Avoid foods containing aspartame - Aspartame is a sweetener and does not have a direct impact on neural tube defects prevention.
Question 6 of 9
A client reports unrelieved episiotomy pain 8 hours following a vaginal birth. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply an ice pack to the affected area. Ice helps reduce inflammation and numb the pain, providing relief for the client. Step 1: Ice constricts blood vessels, reducing swelling and pain. Step 2: Ice numbs the area, providing immediate relief. Step 3: Ice is recommended for acute pain management. Summary: B (warm sitz bath) may increase blood flow and exacerbate swelling. C (antiseptic solution) is not indicated for pain relief. D (hot pack) may worsen inflammation and pain.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because preterm newborns lack adequate temperature control mechanisms. Preterm infants have underdeveloped regulatory systems, making them vulnerable to heat loss or overheating. Maintaining a neutral thermal environment in an incubator helps prevent fluctuations in body temperature. Choice A is incorrect because surface area alone does not explain the need for a neutral thermal environment. Choice B is incorrect as brown fat actually helps generate heat in newborns. Choice D is incorrect as drying sweat is not the primary reason for using an incubator in preterm newborns.
Question 8 of 9
A client is learning how to check basal temperature to determine ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Every morning before arising. This is because basal body temperature is the lowest body temperature attained during rest, typically just before waking up. Checking the temperature at this time provides the most accurate measurement of basal temperature. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because ovulation typically occurs around 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, not on days 13 to 17 specifically (A), 1 hour following intercourse is not a reliable indicator of ovulation (C), and basal temperature should be checked in the morning, not before going to bed at night (D).
Question 9 of 9
A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. Quickening typically happens around 18-20 weeks, which falls between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. During this time, the fetus's movements become more pronounced and can be felt by the pregnant person. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not occur in the last trimester, end of the first trimester, or when the uterus rises out of the pelvis. These options do not align with the typical timing of quickening in pregnancy.