ATI LPN
Dewitt Fundamentals Quizlet LPN Pass Medications Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is admitted with a head injury. The nurse identifies that the client's urinary catheter is draining large amounts of clear, colorless urine. What does the nurse identify as the most likely cause?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Large amounts of clear urine post-head injury suggest inadequate ADH secretion (C), causing diabetes insipidus. High glucose (A) causes osmotic diuresis, not typical here. Poor perfusion (B) reduces output. Excess IV fluid (D) doesn't match dilute urine. C is correct. Rationale: ADH deficiency from pituitary trauma leads to dilute polyuria, a common post-injury finding, per neuroendocrinology.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a cervical spinal cord injury is admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse notes that the client's blood pressure is 84/50 mm Hg and the pulse is 48 beats/min. Which condition does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low BP (84/50) and bradycardia (48 bpm) in cervical SCI suggest neurogenic shock (B) from sympathetic disruption. Hypovolemic (A) has tachycardia. Septic (C) or cardiogenic (D) don't fit. B is correct. Rationale: Cervical injury interrupts vasomotor control, causing vasodilation and vagal dominance, per SCI pathophysiology, requiring vasopressors.
Question 3 of 5
When the licensed practical/vocational nurse is checking the physician's orders against the medication record prior to setting up medications, the nurse discovers a medication error made on the previous shift. The nurse reports this error to the supervising nurse. Which of the following persons will need to fill out an incident report?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The licensed practical/vocational nurse who discovers a medication error from the previous shift is responsible for filling out the incident report. This nurse identified the discrepancy, making them the firsthand witness to the event, which is crucial for accurate reporting. Incident reports document deviations from standard care to improve safety and track errors, and the discoverer's account ensures an unbiased, immediate record. The nurse who made the error might provide details, but the discoverer initiates the process per protocol. The supervising nurse oversees but doesn't typically file the report unless involved, and the primary nurse from the prior shift isn't present. This responsibility aligns with accountability and supports system-wide quality improvement.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following statements is an OBRA regulation that the nurse must keep in mind when considering applying a restraint to a client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) mandates that a physician's order for restraints be time-limited, ensuring periodic reassessment to minimize use. This regulation protects clients from prolonged restriction, requiring justification and renewal, such as every 24 hours. Restraints aren't a first choice alternatives are prioritized and verbal orders need prompt signing, but time limits are key. Family objections don't legally veto if clinically warranted. This rule balances safety with rights, critical in nursing practice.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is sending some lab results to the primary physician's office. The nurse most needs to do which of the following things?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Verifying receipt of faxed lab results via a follow-up call and documenting it ensures communication accuracy and accountability. Noting the fax alone or leaving a record note lacks confirmation, and checking with the lab doesn't guarantee physician receipt. This step prevents care delays, a vital nursing responsibility.