A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions. In active labor, contractions typically last around 60 seconds each and occur about 2-5 minutes apart. With contractions 4 minutes apart, a 3-minute rest between contractions aligns with the expected pattern. Choice A is incorrect as the rest between contractions is too long. Choice B is incorrect as a contraction lasting 4 minutes is not typical in labor. Choice D is incorrect as the duration of contractions is shorter than expected in active labor. Therefore, Choice C is the most fitting pattern based on the frequency and duration of contractions during labor.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because urinary frequency is common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus. This symptom typically improves by the end of the first trimester, as the uterus rises and reduces pressure on the bladder. Therefore, telling the client that it occurs during the first trimester and near the end of pregnancy is accurate. Choice A is incorrect because urinary frequency should not be ignored as it could be a sign of a urinary tract infection or other underlying issue. Choice B is incorrect because it inaccurately suggests that urinary frequency only lasts until the 12th week and implies that poor bladder tone is the sole factor influencing this symptom. Choice C is incorrect because while it is true that individual experiences can vary, there are general patterns and timelines for common pregnancy symptoms like urinary frequency.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palpate the client's uterine fundus. Palpating the uterine fundus is crucial to assess for uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. If the fundus is boggy or deviated, it indicates uterine atony and immediate interventions are needed. B: Assisting the client to a bedpan to urinate is important, but addressing the potential cause of excessive bleeding takes precedence. C: Administering oxytocic medication may be necessary to help stimulate uterine contractions, but assessing the fundus comes first to determine the underlying cause of bleeding. D: Increasing fluid intake is not the priority in this situation. Palpating the fundus and addressing potential hemorrhage are the immediate concerns.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Tocolytic therapy is used to delay preterm labor and prevent premature birth. 2. Administering tocolytic therapy at 26 weeks of gestation allows time for corticosteroids to enhance fetal lung maturity. 3. Delaying labor at this stage can improve neonatal outcomes. 4. Other choices are incorrect because tocolytic therapy is not indicated for fetal death, Braxton-Hicks contractions, or post-term pregnancy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the indirect Coombs test is used to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In this scenario, the mother is Rh-negative, so if she has been sensitized to Rh-positive blood during childbirth, her immune system may produce antibodies that could potentially harm future Rh-positive pregnancies. This test helps identify the presence of these antibodies early on so appropriate interventions can be initiated to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: This test does not determine if kernicterus will occur in the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe complication of jaundice, which may result from hemolytic disease of the newborn if untreated. B: The indirect Coombs test does not detect Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. It specifically looks for Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. D: The test does not determine the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood. It focuses on detecting antibodies in