ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions. In active labor, contractions typically last around 60 seconds each and occur about 2-5 minutes apart. With contractions 4 minutes apart, a 3-minute rest between contractions aligns with the expected pattern. Choice A is incorrect as the rest between contractions is too long. Choice B is incorrect as a contraction lasting 4 minutes is not typical in labor. Choice D is incorrect as the duration of contractions is shorter than expected in active labor. Therefore, Choice C is the most fitting pattern based on the frequency and duration of contractions during labor.
Question 2 of 9
A client who is at 40 weeks gestation and in active labor has 6 cm of cervical dilation and 100% cervical effacement. The client's blood pressure reading is 82/52 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assist the client to turn onto her side. This intervention is essential to improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, thus helping to increase blood pressure and prevent hypotension. Turning the client onto her side can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, allowing for better circulation. A: Preparing for a cesarean birth is not indicated based solely on the client's blood pressure reading. B: Assisting the client to an upright position may worsen hypotension as it can further decrease blood flow to the placenta. C: Preparing for an immediate vaginal delivery is not necessary solely based on the client's blood pressure reading.
Question 3 of 9
A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C, having the client pant during the next contractions, is the correct answer. At 7 cm dilation with a sudden urge to push, it indicates possible fetal descent. Panting can help prevent rapid descent and reducing the risk of cervical edema or injury. It allows time for the cervix to dilate fully before pushing, preventing premature pushing and potential complications. Option A is not a priority at this stage. Option B is incorrect as observing for crowning might lead to premature pushing. Option D is not necessary as voiding is not the priority right now.
Question 4 of 9
A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. Quickening typically happens around 18-20 weeks, which falls between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. During this time, the fetus's movements become more pronounced and can be felt by the pregnant person. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not occur in the last trimester, end of the first trimester, or when the uterus rises out of the pelvis. These options do not align with the typical timing of quickening in pregnancy.
Question 5 of 9
A client reports unrelieved episiotomy pain 8 hours following a vaginal birth. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply an ice pack to the affected area. Ice helps reduce inflammation and numb the pain, providing relief for the client. Step 1: Ice constricts blood vessels, reducing swelling and pain. Step 2: Ice numbs the area, providing immediate relief. Step 3: Ice is recommended for acute pain management. Summary: B (warm sitz bath) may increase blood flow and exacerbate swelling. C (antiseptic solution) is not indicated for pain relief. D (hot pack) may worsen inflammation and pain.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because preterm newborns lack adequate temperature control mechanisms. Preterm infants have underdeveloped regulatory systems, making them vulnerable to heat loss or overheating. Maintaining a neutral thermal environment in an incubator helps prevent fluctuations in body temperature. Choice A is incorrect because surface area alone does not explain the need for a neutral thermal environment. Choice B is incorrect as brown fat actually helps generate heat in newborns. Choice D is incorrect as drying sweat is not the primary reason for using an incubator in preterm newborns.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because urinary frequency is common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus. This symptom typically improves by the end of the first trimester, as the uterus rises and reduces pressure on the bladder. Therefore, telling the client that it occurs during the first trimester and near the end of pregnancy is accurate. Choice A is incorrect because urinary frequency should not be ignored as it could be a sign of a urinary tract infection or other underlying issue. Choice B is incorrect because it inaccurately suggests that urinary frequency only lasts until the 12th week and implies that poor bladder tone is the sole factor influencing this symptom. Choice C is incorrect because while it is true that individual experiences can vary, there are general patterns and timelines for common pregnancy symptoms like urinary frequency.
Question 8 of 9
A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing extra blankets from the baby's crib reduces the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby on the stomach (Option A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Option C) can also increase the risk of suffocation. Placing the crib next to a heater (Option D) can lead to overheating and poses a fire hazard. Removing extra blankets ensures a safe sleep environment for the baby.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer vitamin K by IM injection to a newborn. The medication should be administered into which of the following muscles?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vastus lateralis. This muscle is the preferred site for IM injections in newborns due to its large muscle mass and minimal risk of damage to nerves and blood vessels. Administering vitamin K in the vastus lateralis ensures proper absorption and distribution of the medication. Ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are not recommended for newborns due to the risk of sciatic nerve damage and limited muscle mass. The deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults, not newborns.