ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.
Question 2 of 5
During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When measuring a newborn's chest circumference, the appropriate anatomical landmark to use is the nipple line. This point is consistent and allows for accurate and standardized measurements across all newborn assessments. The sternal notch is not typically used for chest circumference measurements in newborns. The xiphoid process is located at the lower end of the sternum and is not an appropriate landmark for chest circumference measurement. The fifth intercostal space is typically used for locating the point of maximal impulse (PMI) during cardiac assessments, not for measuring chest circumference.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare professional in the emergency department is caring for a client who presents with severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the healthcare professional that the client has blood in the peritoneum?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cullen's sign, which presents as bruising around the umbilicus, indicates the presence of blood in the peritoneum. This sign is significant in cases of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy as it suggests intraperitoneal bleeding, prompting immediate medical attention. Chvostek's sign is related to facial muscle spasm and is not indicative of peritoneal bleeding. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina during pregnancy, not related to peritoneal bleeding. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix, which is a sign of pregnancy, and not specific to peritoneal bleeding.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Urinary frequency is common during the first trimester and again at the end of pregnancy when the baby drops into the pelvis, putting pressure on the bladder.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because preterm newborns have immature temperature regulation mechanisms, making it difficult for them to maintain their body temperature. An incubator helps maintain a stable thermal environment. Choice A is incorrect as the body surface area is not the primary reason for needing an incubator. Choice B is incorrect because brown fat in preterm newborns actually helps generate heat. Choice D is incorrect as the purpose of the incubator is not to dry sweat but to regulate the newborn's temperature.
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