ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C, having the client pant during the next contractions, is the correct answer. At 7 cm dilation with a sudden urge to push, it indicates possible fetal descent. Panting can help prevent rapid descent and reducing the risk of cervical edema or injury. It allows time for the cervix to dilate fully before pushing, preventing premature pushing and potential complications. Option A is not a priority at this stage. Option B is incorrect as observing for crowning might lead to premature pushing. Option D is not necessary as voiding is not the priority right now.
Question 2 of 5
A client who is at 40 weeks gestation and in active labor has 6 cm of cervical dilation and 100% cervical effacement. The client's blood pressure reading is 82/52 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assist the client to turn onto her side. This intervention is essential to improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, thus helping to increase blood pressure and prevent hypotension. Turning the client onto her side can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, allowing for better circulation. A: Preparing for a cesarean birth is not indicated based solely on the client's blood pressure reading. B: Assisting the client to an upright position may worsen hypotension as it can further decrease blood flow to the placenta. C: Preparing for an immediate vaginal delivery is not necessary solely based on the client's blood pressure reading.
Question 3 of 5
A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction. This is important to assess the fetal well-being and baseline status before initiating epidural analgesia. It helps in detecting any fetal distress or abnormalities that may be exacerbated by the epidural. A: Having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not recommended as it may interfere with the procedure and comfort of the client. B: Administering a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not directly related to preparing for epidural analgesia. C: Informing the client about the duration of anesthetic effect is important, but ensuring fetal well-being through EFM monitoring is a priority before the procedure.
Question 4 of 5
When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to decreased oxygenation of the fetus. This finding should be reported to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes (choice B) are normal in the active phase of labor. Strong contractions (choice C) are also expected during this phase. Feeling contractions in the lower back (choice D) is common and not typically a cause for concern. Reporting contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds is crucial to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.
Question 5 of 5
A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. Quickening typically happens around 18-20 weeks, which falls between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. During this time, the fetus's movements become more pronounced and can be felt by the pregnant person. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not occur in the last trimester, end of the first trimester, or when the uterus rises out of the pelvis. These options do not align with the typical timing of quickening in pregnancy.