ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches are contraindications to oral contraceptives due to increased risks of complications. Cholecystitis can worsen with oral contraceptives, hypertension increases cardiovascular risks, and migraines with aura can increase stroke risk. Other choices are incorrect because they do not pose significant risks with oral contraceptives.
Question 2 of 9
A newborn was transferred to the nursery 30 min after delivery. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Verify the newborn's identification. This is the first priority to ensure the newborn's safety and prevent any mix-ups. Confirming identification helps prevent errors in care, such as giving medication to the wrong baby. Administering vitamin K (choice C) and determining obstetrical risk factors (choice D) are important tasks but verifying identification is the most crucial immediate step to ensure the newborn's well-being. Confirmation (choice A) is also important but verifying is more active in ensuring the correct identification.
Question 3 of 9
A client in labor requests epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution. This is essential because epidural anesthesia can cause hypotension, which can lead to decreased perfusion to the fetus. Continuous monitoring allows for prompt intervention if hypotension occurs. A: Positioning the client supine for 30 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution can cause aortocaval compression, leading to decreased blood flow to the fetus. B: Administering dextrose 5% in water is not necessary for epidural anesthesia and does not address potential complications. D: The client does not need to be NPO for 4 hours before epidural placement; this requirement is for general anesthesia, not epidural anesthesia.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is providing education about family bonding to parents who recently adopted a newborn. The nurse should make which of the following suggestions to aid the family's 7-year-old child in accepting the new family member?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Giving a gift from the newborn to the sibling promotes positive feelings and acceptance. 2. It allows the sibling to feel included and valued in the new family dynamic. 3. The act of giving a gift fosters a sense of connection and bonding between the siblings. Summary: A: Allowing the sibling to hold the newborn during a bath may pose safety concerns and should be supervised. B: Forcing physical affection like kissing may not be appropriate and could lead to negative feelings. D: Switching rooms may cause confusion and disrupt the sibling's sense of stability.
Question 5 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV to a client who is in preterm labor. Available is 20 g of magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W). How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the mL/hr for the IV pump infusion rate, first determine the total volume of magnesium sulfate to be administered per hour (2 g/hr). Next, calculate the volume of the solution that contains the 2 g of magnesium sulfate (20 g in 500 mL). Divide the total volume by the concentration of magnesium sulfate in the solution to find the mL/hr rate. In this case, (2 g/hr / 20 g) * 500 mL = 50 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is C (50 mL/hr). Choice A (60 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not accurately calculate the mL/hr rate based on the provided information. Choice B (30 mL/hr) is incorrect as it is too low of a rate based on the concentration of magnesium sulfate in the solution. Choice D (80 mL/hr) is incorrect as it is too high of a rate based on the concentration of magnesium sulfate in the solution.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare provider is assessing fetal heart tones for a pregnant client. The provider has determined the fetal position as left occipital anterior. To which of the following areas of the client's abdomen should the provider apply the ultrasound transducer to assess the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Left lower quadrant. When the fetal position is left occipital anterior, the provider should place the ultrasound transducer on the left lower quadrant. This is because the fetal heart is closest to this area, allowing for optimal detection of the fetal heart tones. Placing the transducer on other quadrants would not provide the best angle to capture the maximum intensity of the fetal heart tones. The left upper quadrant (choice A) and right upper quadrant (choice B) are not in line with the fetal position and may result in poor signal detection. The right lower quadrant (choice D) is farther away from the fetal heart and may not provide an accurate assessment of the fetal heart tones.
Question 7 of 9
A client who is 3 days postpartum is receiving education on effective breastfeeding. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Your newborn should appear content after each feeding. This is important because it indicates that the baby is getting enough milk and breastfeeding is effective. A content baby shows signs of satisfaction and fullness, such as relaxed body language and sometimes falling asleep. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because colostrum transitions to mature milk within a few days, breasts may feel softer after breastfeeding when milk is effectively removed, and newborns should have at least 6-8 wet diapers per day, not necessarily 10 times.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for performing Leopold maneuvers is as follows: 1. Palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part (A) 2. Determine the location of the fetal back (B) 3. Palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet (C) By following these steps, the nurse can assess the position of the fetus and determine the best approach for delivery. Choosing option D (All of the Above) is correct because each step is essential in conducting a thorough assessment. Options A, B, and C are incorrect individually because they represent isolated steps of the process, whereas performing all three steps in sequence provides a comprehensive evaluation of fetal position.
Question 9 of 9
A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR). After an amniocentesis, the nurse's priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Monitoring the FHR is crucial to detect any signs of fetal distress or compromise. This allows for prompt intervention if needed. Checking the client's temperature (A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Observing for uterine contractions (B) is relevant but not as critical as monitoring the FHR. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (C) is not necessary immediately after an amniocentesis as it is typically given to Rh-negative women at 28 weeks gestation and postpartum.