ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches are all contraindications to oral contraceptives. Cholecystitis can be exacerbated by oral contraceptives. Hypertension increases the risk of cardiovascular events with oral contraceptives. Migraine headaches, especially with aura, are associated with an increased risk of stroke when combined with oral contraceptives. Therefore, considering these risks, it is crucial to recognize these findings as contraindications to prescribing oral contraceptives.
Question 2 of 9
A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three signs (Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and Ballottement) are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to bluish discoloration of the cervix, Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix, and Ballottement is a palpable rebound of the fetus against the examiner's fingers. These signs are indicative of pregnancy and are commonly observed in pregnant individuals. Therefore, the provider should expect to see all these findings in a pregnant client. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect because each of these signs individually is a probable sign of pregnancy, and the question asks for all the expected findings, not just one or two of them.
Question 3 of 9
During active labor, a nurse notes tachycardia on the external fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a potential cause of the heart rate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maternal fever. Maternal fever can lead to tachycardia in the fetus due to the transfer of maternal antibodies, cytokines, and other inflammatory mediators across the placenta, affecting fetal heart rate. Maternal fever can indicate infection, which can cause fetal distress. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Fetal heart failure typically presents with bradycardia, not tachycardia. C: Maternal hypoglycemia can affect the fetus but is more likely to cause fetal bradycardia than tachycardia. D: Fetal head compression can result in decelerations but not necessarily tachycardia.
Question 4 of 9
When caring for a client in labor, which of the following infections can be treated during labor or immediately following birth? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. All three infections - Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, and HIV - can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. Antibiotics can be administered for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia, while antiretroviral medications can be given for HIV. Prompt treatment is crucial to reduce the risk of vertical transmission. The other choices are incorrect because each infection listed can be effectively managed during labor or post-birth, making choice D the most comprehensive and accurate option.
Question 5 of 9
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You will be offered orange juice to drink during the test." This statement is correct because providing orange juice to the client during the nonstress test can stimulate fetal movement, making it easier to monitor the baby's heart rate. This can help in obtaining a more accurate assessment of the baby's well-being. Incorrect options: A: IV fluid administration is not typically required for a nonstress test, so this statement is incorrect. B: The procedure can actually take longer than 10 to 15 minutes, depending on various factors, so this statement is inaccurate. D: Informed consent is usually obtained once, not before each test, so this statement is not necessary for the client to know in this context.
Question 6 of 9
A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transition. Transition phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 8 to 10 cm. This phase is characterized by intense contractions close together, increased rectal pressure, and emotional changes. The client in this scenario has contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and the cervix is dilated to 9 cm. This aligns with the characteristics of the transition phase. Summary: A: Active phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 4 to 7 cm. C: Latent phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 0 to 3 cm. D: Descent phase is not a recognized phase of labor.
Question 7 of 9
When providing care for a client in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation, which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to hasten fetal lung maturity?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that promotes fetal lung maturity by stimulating the production of surfactant, essential for lung function. Step 2: At 32 weeks, the fetus may benefit from accelerated lung development to reduce respiratory distress. Step 3: Calcium gluconate is used for hypocalcemia, not for fetal lung maturity. Step 4: Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to delay preterm labor, not for lung maturity. Step 5: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker to prevent preterm labor, not for fetal lung maturity.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydatidiform mole. At 4 months of gestation, prune-colored discharge indicates possible passage of vesicular tissue characteristic of a molar pregnancy. This, along with continued nausea, vomiting, and larger fundal height, are signs of a hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (A) typically involves severe nausea and vomiting leading to weight loss, which the client did not experience. Threatened abortion (B) presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping, not prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (D) is characterized by regular contractions leading to cervical changes, not the symptoms described.
Question 9 of 9
A client who is 2 hours postpartum is in the taking-hold phase. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement during this phase of postpartum behavioral adjustment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because during the taking-hold phase, the client is focused on learning and mastering new skills related to caring for the newborn. Demonstrating how to perform a newborn bath aligns with this phase as it helps the client gain confidence and competence in newborn care. Discussing contraceptive options (choice A) is more appropriate during the let-go phase. Repeating information (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority during the taking-hold phase. Listening to the client and her partner reflect on the birth experience (choice C) is important for emotional support but not specifically related to the behavioral adjustments in the taking-hold phase.