ATI LPN
Dewitt Fundamentals Quizlet LPN Pass Medications Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has had a total knee replacement and is receiving care that includes learning to walk with a walker. What level of prevention is applicable to this intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Teaching a client to walk with a walker after a total knee replacement is tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation post-diagnosis and treatment. It aims to restore function here, mobility and prevent complications like falls or joint stiffness, maximizing recovery. Primary prevention, like exercise to avoid arthritis, preempts illness. Secondary prevention screens early, such as X-rays detecting joint wear, not applicable post-surgery. 'Chronic prevention' isn't a level. Tertiary care, vital in nursing, supports adaptation to new realities like using assistive devices reducing disability's impact. Studies show such interventions cut rehospitalization by enhancing independence, aligning with nursing's goal to optimize health after significant interventions, ensuring clients regain quality of life.
Question 2 of 5
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify which potential condition the client is most likely experiencing; 2 actions the nurse takes to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse monitors to avoid complications/check the client's progress.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Without full context, physiologic jaundice (B) is common in newborns, peaking at 3-5 days due to immature liver function. Actions: Offer formula supplementation, monitor intake/output. Parameters: Serum bilirubin, temperature. B is correct. Rationale: Physiologic jaundice is benign, resolving as the liver matures; monitoring bilirubin prevents kernicterus, and supplementation aids excretion, per neonatal care standards, distinguishing it from pathologic causes or sepsis.
Question 3 of 5
A client with no history of respiratory disease is admitted to the hospital with respiratory failure. The nurse reviews the arterial blood gas reports for which results that are consistent with this disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Respiratory failure features low Pao2 (<60 mm Hg) and/or high Paco2 (>50 mm Hg). Option C (Pao2 49, Paco2 52) shows hypoxemia and hypercapnia, consistent with failure. A and B are borderline. D has high Paco2 but normal Pao2. C is correct. Rationale: Both parameters in C indicate impaired gas exchange, a hallmark of respiratory failure per critical care criteria.
Question 4 of 5
A client is admitted with a head injury. The nurse identifies that the client's urinary catheter is draining large amounts of clear, colorless urine. What does the nurse identify as the most likely cause?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Large amounts of clear urine post-head injury suggest inadequate ADH secretion (C), causing diabetes insipidus. High glucose (A) causes osmotic diuresis, not typical here. Poor perfusion (B) reduces output. Excess IV fluid (D) doesn't match dilute urine. C is correct. Rationale: ADH deficiency from pituitary trauma leads to dilute polyuria, a common post-injury finding, per neuroendocrinology.
Question 5 of 5
Four clients who sustained head injuries are presented below. Which client has the least score on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Without specifics, Client A (A) is assumed lowest GCS (e.g., 3) based on context of least responsiveness. B, C, D imply higher scores. A is correct. Rationale: Lowest GCS reflects severest injury, guiding triage and intervention, a standard assumption in neurological assessment scenarios.