ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse working in a mental health facility observes a client who has bipolar disorder walk over to a table occupied by other clients and knock their game off the table. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Offering to go for a walk with the client helps redirect their energy in a non-confrontational way, avoiding escalation of aggressive behavior while promoting de-escalation.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has liver cirrhosis and ascites. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor the effectiveness of the treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Measuring the client's abdominal girth daily is the most effective way to monitor the reduction of ascites and fluid retention in clients with liver cirrhosis. This measurement helps assess the effectiveness of treatment in managing ascites by monitoring changes in abdominal size. Monitoring the client's hemoglobin level (Choice B) is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of ascites treatment. Administering lactulose as prescribed (Choice C) is important in managing hepatic encephalopathy, not ascites. Weighing the client weekly (Choice D) may not provide real-time feedback on the reduction of ascites compared to daily abdominal girth measurements.
Question 4 of 9
During a skin assessment on a client with risk factors for skin cancer, a nurse should understand that a suspicious lesion is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetric with variegated coloring. An asymmetric lesion with variegated coloring, meaning different shades of color within the same lesion, is characteristic of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. This type of lesion should raise suspicions and prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D do not typically represent characteristics of suspicious skin lesions associated with skin cancer. Lesions that are scaly and red (Choice A) may indicate other skin conditions like eczema or psoriasis. Firm and rubbery lesions (Choice C) are more suggestive of benign skin growths like dermatofibromas. Lesions that are brown with a wart-like texture (Choice D) are often indicative of seborrheic keratosis, a benign growth, rather than a suspicious lesion related to skin cancer.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is teaching a client about the dietary management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Drink peppermint tea.' Peppermint tea can help relax the smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract, reducing symptoms of IBS, such as bloating and abdominal discomfort. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fiber intake is not recommended for IBS management as fiber can help regulate bowel movements. Increasing foods high in fat can exacerbate symptoms of IBS, as high-fat foods can be harder to digest. Avoiding foods with gluten is more relevant for individuals with gluten sensitivity or celiac disease, not specifically for IBS management.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.
Question 8 of 9
A provider has written a do not resuscitate (DNR) order for a client who is comatose and does not have advance directives. A member of the client's family says, 'I wonder when the doctor will tell us what's going on.' Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to ask the family what the provider has discussed with them. This allows the nurse to clarify any misunderstandings and ensures that the family is fully informed before providing further information. Option A is not the best choice because it assumes the need for more information without first understanding what has already been communicated. Option B is premature as the family may not be ready for grief counseling at this stage. Option C, although a good general practice, is not the most appropriate immediate action in this situation where clarifying existing information is crucial.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). The glycosylated hemoglobin test measures average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing an indication of long-term glycemic control in clients with diabetes. Choice A, postprandial blood glucose, reflects blood sugar levels after a meal and does not provide a long-term view. Choice C, glucose tolerance test, evaluates the body's ability to process sugar but does not offer a continuous assessment like the HbA1c test. Choice D, fasting blood glucose, measures blood sugar levels after a period of fasting, which is more indicative of immediate glycemic status rather than long-term management.