ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following should the nurse assess for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with COPD, the nurse should assess for the use of accessory muscles. This is important because COPD can lead to increased work of breathing, causing the client to engage accessory muscles to help with respiration. Assessing for the use of accessory muscles provides crucial information about the client's respiratory effort. Respiratory rate (Choice A) is a standard assessment parameter but may not specifically indicate the severity of COPD. Chest pain (Choice B) is not typically associated with COPD unless there are complicating factors. Oxygen saturation (Choice D) is essential to monitor in COPD clients, but assessing for the use of accessory muscles takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status in COPD.
Question 3 of 5
A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a pneumococcal vaccine. Which of the following should the nurse verify?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Client's vaccination history. Before administering a pneumococcal vaccine, the nurse should verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the vaccine. Verifying the vaccination history helps prevent unnecessary vaccinations and ensures that the client receives the appropriate immunization at the right time. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of the pneumococcal vaccine. Checking for allergies to eggs may be important for other vaccines, but it is not specifically relevant to pneumococcal vaccination. The client's current medications and blood pressure are important for general health assessment but are not directly related to verifying the need for a pneumococcal vaccine.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when preparing to administer a blood transfusion is to verify the blood type and crossmatch. This step is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Obtaining the client's consent is important but should follow the verification process. Taking baseline vital signs is necessary before starting the transfusion, but confirming compatibility takes precedence. Priming the IV with normal saline is a step done before starting the transfusion, after ensuring blood compatibility.