ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.
Question 2 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer morphine for severe pain. What is the priority assessment the professional should make before administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Before administering morphine, the priority assessment the healthcare professional should make is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so assessing the respiratory rate is crucial to prevent any potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature are important as well, but they are not the priority when administering morphine for severe pain.
Question 3 of 9
A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing neutropenia. Which of the following should the nurse include in this client's education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with neutropenia have a weakened immune system, making them susceptible to infections. Avoiding crowded events helps reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens, thereby minimizing the chance of infections. Tracking oral temperature is important for detecting fever early, which is a sign of infection and requires immediate medical attention. While gardening can be a good form of exercise, clients with neutropenia should avoid it due to the risk of exposure to bacteria and fungi present in soil. Eating fresh fruits and vegetables is generally encouraged for overall health but may carry a risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with neutropenia.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is preparing to administer a pneumococcal vaccine. Which of the following should the nurse verify?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Client's vaccination history. Before administering a pneumococcal vaccine, the nurse should verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the vaccine. Verifying the vaccination history helps prevent unnecessary vaccinations and ensures that the client receives the appropriate immunization at the right time. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of the pneumococcal vaccine. Checking for allergies to eggs may be important for other vaccines, but it is not specifically relevant to pneumococcal vaccination. The client's current medications and blood pressure are important for general health assessment but are not directly related to verifying the need for a pneumococcal vaccine.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse enters a patient's room and finds the client pulseless. The living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. Even though the living will requests no resuscitation, without a written do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order from the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally bound to initiate CPR to provide life-saving measures until further confirmation is obtained. Notifying the family (Choice A) may cause a delay in providing immediate care. Waiting for further instructions (Choice C) can be time-consuming and compromise patient outcomes. Documenting the event (Choice D) is important but should follow after initiating CPR to ensure patient safety and adherence to protocols.
Question 6 of 9
When resolving a conflict, which statement made by the charge nurse is an example of smoothing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it exemplifies smoothing, a conflict resolution strategy where the charge nurse reassures the staff nurse of their capabilities. Choice B offers to take over the assignment, which is more of a compromising strategy. Choice C suggests switching assignments, which aligns with compromising rather than smoothing. Choice D proposes a discussion in a private setting, indicating a collaborating approach rather than smoothing.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is planning to discharge a client who has quadriplegia to his home. The nurse suggests that the family might need respite care services. When a family member asks how respite care can help, which response should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Respite care is designed to give primary caregivers temporary relief from the responsibilities of care, allowing them to take a break. Choice A is incorrect because respite care is not primarily focused on providing medical support to the client. Choice B is incorrect as respite care does not specifically assist with financial planning for the client's needs. Choice C is incorrect as respite care does not provide long-term housing, but rather short-term relief for caregivers.
Question 8 of 9
A client is being taught about the use of levothyroxine. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take it at the same time every day.' It is important to take levothyroxine consistently at the same time each day to maintain stable thyroid hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect as levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice C is incorrect because stopping levothyroxine suddenly can lead to adverse effects due to sudden changes in hormone levels. Choice D is also incorrect as hyperglycemia is not a common side effect associated with levothyroxine.
Question 9 of 9
A client has a new prescription for oxcarbazepine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum sodium levels. Oxcarbazepine can lead to hyponatremia, making it crucial to monitor serum sodium levels. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Blood glucose (choice C) monitoring is more relevant in medications affecting blood sugar levels. Heart rate (choice D) is not directly impacted by oxcarbazepine.