Questions 9

ATI LPN

ATI LPN Test Bank

LPN Pharmacology Assessment A Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client has a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client to expect red-orange discoloration of body fluids when taking rifampin. This side effect is harmless but can be surprising to patients. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this expected change to prevent unnecessary concern or alarm. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to rifampin, and taking the medication with food or avoiding dairy products are not specific instructions for this medication.

Question 2 of 5

A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications.

Question 3 of 5

A client with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving thrombolytic therapy. The nurse monitors the client for which potential complication associated with this therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy is associated with an increased risk of bleeding due to its mechanism of action in dissolving blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of hemorrhage, such as unexplained bruising, bleeding gums, or blood in the urine or stools.

Question 4 of 5

The client with a history of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity as low potassium levels enhance the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity and potential adverse effects.

Question 5 of 5

The client with a history of left-sided heart failure is exhibiting increasing shortness of breath and frothy sputum. What is the priority nursing action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath and frothy sputum are indicative of pulmonary edema, a serious condition that requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen is the priority action to support the client's respiratory function and prevent further deterioration. Oxygen therapy helps increase the oxygen levels in the blood, alleviate respiratory distress, and support vital organ function. Prompt intervention with oxygen can help stabilize the client while further assessments and treatments are initiated.

Similar Questions

Join Our Community Today!

Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-LPN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-LPN exam.

Call to Action Image