A client has a new prescription for heparin. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory result that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin. Heparin works by prolonging the aPTT, and monitoring this parameter helps ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety in preventing clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Platelet count is essential to assess platelet function and clotting disorders, but it is not specifically used to monitor heparin therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When administering controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse witness the disposal of the medication. This measure ensures proper handling, reduces the risk of diversion, and promotes compliance with regulations regarding controlled substances. Having a second nurse witness the disposal is a safeguard to maintain accountability and prevent any potential misuse or errors during the disposal process. Checking the client's identification bracelet and allergy status are important steps in medication administration but are not specifically required for controlled substances. Documenting the administration in the client's medical record is essential but does not specifically relate to the disposal of controlled substances.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. It is essential to report this to the healthcare provider as it may indicate the need to discontinue the medication to prevent further complications such as angioedema or cough that can persist for weeks to months after stopping the medication. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is not typically associated with lisinopril use; instead, it is a possible side effect of medications like potassium-sparing diuretics. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, would not be a concerning finding as lisinopril is often prescribed to lower blood pressure. Choice D, increased appetite, is not a common side effect of lisinopril and would not typically warrant immediate reporting.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Cefoxitin. Cefoxitin can contain latex in the stopper of the vial, which may pose a risk for allergic reaction in individuals with latex sensitivity. Amoxicillin, Erythromycin, and Metronidazole do not typically contain latex components in their formulations. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in identifying and avoiding medications with latex components to prevent adverse reactions in patients with known latex allergies.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed furosemide is to eat foods high in potassium. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urine output. Consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, spinach, and potatoes can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning, monitoring for muscle weakness, and expecting weight gain are not directly related to the potential side effects or necessary dietary adjustments when taking furosemide.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Increasing folic acid intake is crucial when taking methotrexate because the medication can lead to folic acid deficiency. Folic acid supplementation helps counteract this deficiency and reduces the risk of adverse effects associated with methotrexate therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding dairy products is not specifically necessary for methotrexate therapy. Methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to methotrexate use.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use is crucial as it helps ensure proper mixing of the medication, which is essential for effective delivery of the drug to the lungs. This step is important for optimal therapeutic effects of albuterol inhalation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using the inhaler every 4 hours around the clock without specifying a maximum number of doses can lead to overuse. Rinsing the mouth with water after each use is typically advised for inhaled corticosteroids to reduce the risk of oral thrush, not for albuterol. Using the inhaler while lying down is not recommended as it may lead to improper medication delivery to the lungs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding alcohol is crucial in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps prevent irritation and further damage to the stomach lining. Alcohol can worsen symptoms and hinder the healing process in individuals with this condition. Choice A is incorrect because NSAIDs can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining. Choice C is a correct dietary recommendation for managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce stomach acid secretion and promotes healing. Choice D is incorrect as milk may temporarily soothe ulcer pain, but it can stimulate acid production and worsen symptoms in the long run.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.