ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.
Question 2 of 5
A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. Which action should the nurse take when toxicity occurs?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When toxicity from magnesium sulfate occurs, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate IV as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Positioning the client supine may not address the toxicity issue. Administering dextrose 5% is not the appropriate intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage and is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is using Naegele's rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in October. What is the expected date?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Using Naegele's rule, to calculate the expected delivery date, you add one year, subtract three months, and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. If the last menstrual period was in October, adding one year gives October of the following year. Subtracting three months gives July, and adding seven days gives the expected delivery date of July 11th. Therefore, the correct answer is 711. Choice B (1011) is incorrect as it doesn't follow Naegele's rule calculations. Choices C (411) and D (1211) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct application of Naegele's rule.
Question 4 of 5
A client receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation is experiencing contractions every 45 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. Contractions occurring every 45 seconds indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can pose risks to both the client and the fetus. By stopping the oxytocin infusion, the nurse can help prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing, decreasing, or maintaining the oxytocin infusion can exacerbate the uterine hyperstimulation and increase the risks associated with it.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.