A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours. In a patient with urinary sepsis, timely administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications. Piperacillin/tazobactam is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacteria commonly involved in sepsis. Administering it first ensures prompt initiation of treatment. Other choices (B) Vancomycin, (C) Pantoprazole, and (D) Enoxaparin are important medications but are not as time-sensitive in this scenario. Vancomycin and Enoxaparin have longer administration times, and Pantoprazole is a maintenance medication that is not urgent in the acute management of sepsis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. The rationale is that metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further decrease heart rate. With a low apical pulse of 58 beats/minute, administering metoprolol can potentially cause bradycardia or further slow down the heart rate to dangerous levels. Holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider allows for further assessment and potential adjustment of the dosage or consideration of alternative treatments. Incorrect choices: A: Administering the medication as prescribed can lead to bradycardia and potential harm to the client. C: Giving half the prescribed dose and rechecking the pulse in 30 minutes can still lead to further bradycardia and potential harm. D: Administering the medication and then rechecking the pulse in 30 minutes is not appropriate as the initial pulse rate is already low, and waiting to recheck could lead to adverse effects before intervention.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 indicates an infection, which can be a contraindication for surgery. The nurse should inform Client D that surgery is likely to be delayed until the infection is treated to prevent complications. Choice A is incorrect as increasing oxygen for Client A may not be necessary based on the oxygen saturation level of 94%, which is within the normal range. Choice B is incorrect because determining if packed cells are available in the blood bank for Client B with a hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL does not address the immediate concern of the possible surgical delay due to infection. Choice C is incorrect as adding a banana to Client C's breakfast tray for a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is not a priority compared to addressing the potential surgical delay for Client D.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in Trendelenburg position. This is the first action to take in a client with suspected air embolism, a potential complication of central line insertion. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position with the head down and the legs elevated can help prevent air from reaching the heart and lungs. This action can help stabilize the client's condition before further interventions can be implemented. Stopping the TPN infusion (choice A) can be important, but the priority in this situation is to address the potential air embolism. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice B) can be done after the immediate intervention. Administering oxygen (choice D) is important, but placing the client in Trendelenburg position takes precedence in this emergency situation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asterixis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric syndrome associated with liver dysfunction. Asterixis, also known as liver flap, is a key clinical manifestation characterized by a flapping tremor of the hands when extended. This occurs due to impaired ammonia metabolism in the liver leading to neurotoxicity. Jaundice (B) is a sign of liver dysfunction but not specific to hepatic encephalopathy. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, common in liver cirrhosis but not indicative of hepatic encephalopathy. Splenomegaly (D) is enlargement of the spleen, which can occur in cirrhosis but is not a direct sign of hepatic encephalopathy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bureau of Vital Statistics. The Bureau of Vital Statistics is responsible for maintaining records on births, deaths, and other vital events in a particular region. Therefore, it is the most likely state resource to provide information on infant death rates. Disease registry (A) typically focuses on specific diseases rather than overall mortality rates. Department of Health (B) may have some data but may not specifically focus on vital statistics. Census data (D) provides population demographics but does not specifically track infant death rates.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain a protective isolation environment. During bone marrow repopulation after transplantation, the client is at high risk of infection due to compromised immune function. By maintaining a protective isolation environment, the nurse can minimize the risk of exposure to pathogens that could lead to infections. This intervention helps prevent potential complications and supports the client's recovery. Rationale for other choices: A: Administering sargramostim may enhance white blood cell production but does not directly address the risk of infection during bone marrow repopulation. B: Infusing PRBC and platelet transfusions may be necessary for managing anemia and thrombocytopenia but does not address the priority of infection prevention. C: Giving prophylactic antibiotics may be beneficial in some cases, but maintaining a protective isolation environment is the priority to reduce the risk of infection in this immunocompromised client.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a non-confrontational and calming approach to de-escalate the situation. It helps redirect the client's focus and encourages self-regulation. Choice A may reinforce the aggressive behavior by rewarding it. Choice B (putting behavior on extinction) may escalate the situation further. Choice C (decreasing TV volume) does not address the client's behavior directly.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because shallow, labored respirations at 14 breaths/minute indicate potential respiratory distress in a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury. This level of injury compromises the function of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, leading to impaired respiratory effort. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure and subsequent complications. Choices A and B are common findings in clients with spinal cord injuries and do not require immediate intervention. Choice C indicates stable vital signs within normal range, which do not necessitate immediate action.