A client develops an anaphylactic reaction after receiving morphine. The nurse should plan to institute which actions?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quickly assess the client's respiratory status. An anaphylactic reaction can lead to severe respiratory distress, such as bronchospasm or swelling of the airways, which can be life-threatening. Assessing the client's respiratory status allows for prompt identification of any breathing difficulties and immediate intervention if needed. Leaving the client to contact a PHCP (A) may waste critical time. Administering oxygen (B) may be necessary but assessing the respiratory status should come first. Keeping the client supine regardless of blood pressure readings (D) is not appropriate as positioning should be based on the client's condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Colonoscopy. This is the best next step in evaluation for this patient because the presentation suggests iron deficiency anemia. The low serum iron, high iron-binding capacity, and low ferritin levels are consistent with this diagnosis. Colonoscopy is indicated to rule out gastrointestinal bleeding as the cause of iron deficiency anemia in a middle-aged man with no other obvious etiology. Red blood cell folate (choice A) and serum lead levels (choice B) are not indicated based on the clinical presentation. Bone marrow examination (choice D) is not needed at this point as the likely cause of anemia is iron deficiency related to possible gastrointestinal bleeding.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Choice A (Pelvic ultrasound): - Pelvic ultrasound is the most appropriate initial step for evaluating a 50-year-old woman with abdominal and adnexal fullness to assess for gynecologic issues like ovarian cysts, fibroids, or tumors. - It is non-invasive, cost-effective, and can provide valuable information about the structures in the pelvis. - It helps to visualize the ovaries and uterus, guiding further management decisions based on the findings. Summary of other choices: - Choice B (CA-125 antigen levels): While CA-125 is a tumor marker often elevated in ovarian cancer, it is not specific and can be elevated in other conditions. It is not the initial step in this case. - Choice C (Surgery): Surgery should not be the first step without proper diagnostic evaluation with imaging studies. - Choice D (CT scan of abdomen): CT scan may provide detailed information but is not the initial diagnostic modality for evaluating adnexal full

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: APC. This gene mutation is associated with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), a condition characterized by hundreds to thousands of colorectal polyps and a high risk of developing colon cancer. FAP is an autosomal dominant disorder, so individuals with a family history of colon cancer are at highest risk for having an APC mutation. MEN1 (choice A) is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, RET (choice B) with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2, and MSH (choice D) with Lynch syndrome - all of which are not specifically linked to colon cancer in the context of this question.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most important initial step in a 30-year-old woman on propylthiouracil with fever and sore throat is to perform a CBC. This is crucial to assess for potential agranulocytosis, a rare but serious side effect of propylthiouracil leading to severe neutropenia. A CBC will reveal any abnormalities in white blood cell counts, particularly neutrophils, guiding immediate management. Checking serum TSH or T3 levels is not necessary in this acute situation and won't provide immediate actionable information. A chest x-ray is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory symptoms or clinical signs suggesting a need for imaging.