ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client at 8 weeks of gestation with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. Which beverage should the nurse reinforce the client to take the supplements with for better absorption?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orange juice. Vitamin C enhances iron absorption by converting non-heme iron to a more absorbable form. The acidity in orange juice aids in this process. Ice water (choice A) does not contain any nutrients to enhance iron absorption. Low-fat or whole milk (choice B) contains calcium, which can inhibit iron absorption. Tea or coffee (choice C) contains tannins that can also inhibit iron absorption. In summary, orange juice is the best choice due to its vitamin C content that helps improve iron absorption.
Question 2 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an axillary temperature of 37.7°C (99.9°F) in a newborn is above the normal range and could indicate a fever, which is a significant concern in newborns due to their immature immune systems. Fever in newborns can be a sign of serious infections that require immediate medical attention. A: Erythema toxicum is a common rash in newborns and typically resolves on its own without medical intervention. B: Failure to pass meconium stool by 48 hours may be a concern but not as urgent as a fever. C: Pink-tinged urine in the first few days of life is likely due to uric acid crystals and is considered normal in newborns.
Question 3 of 9
When a client states, 'My water just broke,' what is the nurse's priority intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Begin FHR monitoring. This is the priority intervention because assessing the fetal heart rate (FHR) helps determine the well-being of the baby after the water breaking. Monitoring the FHR can indicate if the baby is in distress and prompt further actions if needed. Performing Nitrazine testing (choice A) is used to confirm if the fluid is amniotic fluid, but FHR monitoring takes precedence. Assessing the fluid (choice B) is important but not as urgent as monitoring the FHR. Checking cervical dilation (choice C) is not the priority as ensuring the baby's well-being through FHR monitoring is crucial in this situation.
Question 4 of 9
A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transition. Transition phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 8 to 10 cm. This phase is characterized by intense contractions close together, increased rectal pressure, and emotional changes. The client in this scenario has contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and the cervix is dilated to 9 cm. This aligns with the characteristics of the transition phase. Summary: A: Active phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 4 to 7 cm. C: Latent phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 0 to 3 cm. D: Descent phase is not a recognized phase of labor.
Question 5 of 9
A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation is being educated about common discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the individual include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. At 6 weeks of gestation, common discomforts include breast tenderness due to hormonal changes, urinary frequency from increased blood flow to kidneys, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) due to increased blood volume and vessel fragility. Therefore, all options are relevant and should be included in the education. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the common discomforts experienced during early pregnancy.
Question 6 of 9
A client who is pregnant states that her last menstrual period was April 1st. What is the client's estimated date of delivery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated by adding 280 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). In this case, April 1st + 280 days = January 8, which is the correct EDD. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not account for the 280-day gestation period from the LMP.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare provider is discussing the differences between true labor and false labor with a group of expectant parents. Which of the following characteristics should the healthcare provider include when discussing true labor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions become stronger with walking. This is because true labor is characterized by contractions that consistently increase in intensity and frequency, which is often enhanced by physical activity like walking. Contractions in false labor do not typically intensify with movement. Discomfort in true labor is usually not easily relieved by a back massage (B) and contractions in true labor remain regular even with changes in activity (C). Discomfort in true labor is typically felt in the lower abdomen and back, not above the umbilicus (D).
Question 8 of 9
A client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation is receiving continuous IV oxytocin and has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing is to continue monitoring the client. Early decelerations are typically benign and are associated with head compression during contractions, which is a normal response to labor. There is no need to discontinue the oxytocin infusion as early decelerations do not indicate fetal distress. Requesting the provider to assess the client may not be necessary at this point unless other concerning signs are present. Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid is not indicated as it would not address the early decelerations. Therefore, the best course of action is to continue monitoring the client for any changes in the FHR pattern.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. It is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that effectively treats gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used for fungal infections, not bacterial. Metronidazole (C) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, not gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.