ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client at 39 weeks of gestation in a prenatal clinic asks about signs preceding labor. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a sign that precedes labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A surge of energy. This is a sign that precedes labor as the body may experience a burst of energy known as the "nesting instinct." This surge can occur as the body prepares for the upcoming physical demands of labor. A: Decreased vaginal discharge is not a sign of impending labor; in fact, there may be an increase in vaginal discharge as the body prepares for childbirth. C: Urinary retention is not a sign of impending labor and can be a symptom of other issues such as a urinary tract infection. D: Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg is not a specific sign of labor approaching; weight fluctuations during pregnancy are common and can vary based on various factors.
Question 2 of 9
A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation reports abdominal pain and moderate vaginal bleeding, with a tentative diagnosis of inevitable abortion. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Offer the option to view products of conception. This intervention allows the client to have closure and process the loss. It can also provide emotional support and facilitate the grieving process. Option A is not necessary unless the client is hypoxic. Option C is not relevant to the immediate management of an inevitable abortion. Option D may be advised for some clients, but it is not as crucial as offering emotional support and closure to the client in this situation.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the arms due to the pressure build-up before the narrowing and decreased blood pressure in the legs due to reduced blood flow beyond the narrowing. This pressure difference is a classic clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiology of coarctation of the aorta. B is incorrect as decreased blood pressure in the arms is not typical. C is incorrect as increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs does not reflect the characteristic pressure difference caused by the aortic narrowing. D is incorrect as decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not consistent with the presentation of coarctation of the aorta.
Question 4 of 9
A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, abruptio placentae. This condition is characterized by sudden onset of continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, common at 36 weeks gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension. It occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Placenta previa (A) presents painless bleeding, prolapsed cord (B) involves cord presenting before the fetus, and incompetent cervix (C) leads to painless dilation of the cervix. Thus, abruptio placentae is the most likely complication in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A client at 39 weeks of gestation in a prenatal clinic asks about signs preceding labor. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a sign that precedes labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A surge of energy. This is a sign that precedes labor as the body may experience a burst of energy known as the "nesting instinct." This surge can occur as the body prepares for the upcoming physical demands of labor. A: Decreased vaginal discharge is not a sign of impending labor; in fact, there may be an increase in vaginal discharge as the body prepares for childbirth. C: Urinary retention is not a sign of impending labor and can be a symptom of other issues such as a urinary tract infection. D: Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg is not a specific sign of labor approaching; weight fluctuations during pregnancy are common and can vary based on various factors.
Question 6 of 9
A pregnant client is learning about Kegel exercises in the third trimester. Which statement signifies understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Kegel exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can aid in pelvic muscle stretching during birth. This can potentially reduce the risk of pelvic floor dysfunction postpartum. A is incorrect because Kegel exercises do not directly prevent constipation. C is incorrect because while Kegel exercises may indirectly help with backaches by improving pelvic floor muscle support, they are not specifically targeted for backache relief. D is incorrect as Kegel exercises do not prevent stretch marks, as stretch marks are related to skin elasticity rather than muscle tone.
Question 7 of 9
During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct interpretation of 0 station is that the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines. This indicates the descent of the fetus into the birth canal. At 0 station, the presenting part has not yet passed through the pelvic outlet, ruling out choice B. Choices A and C are incorrect as they refer to different aspects of fetal positioning and fontanel palpation, not specifically related to station. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it directly relates to the position of the fetus in the birth canal.
Question 8 of 9
A healthcare provider is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating a client with severe preeclampsia can be risky due to the potential for sudden worsening of symptoms and complications like seizures. It is important to prioritize rest and close monitoring in such cases. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every hour (A) is crucial as changes can indicate neurological involvement. Obtaining a daily weight (B) helps monitor fluid status. Continuous fetal monitoring (C) is necessary to assess the well-being of the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. In summary, ambulating the client with severe preeclampsia is the most concerning order as it may pose a significant risk to both the client and the fetus.
Question 9 of 9
During newborn gestational age assessment, which finding should be recorded as part of this assessment on the newborn?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct Answer): Plantar creases covering 2/3 of the sole is a standard newborn assessment finding indicating normal development. This is a key milestone in assessing the newborn's muscle tone and neurological status. Absence or presence of plantar creases can provide insights into potential developmental issues. Therefore, recording this finding is crucial for monitoring the newborn's growth and development. Summary of Other Choices: A: Acrocyanosis of hands and feet - Common benign finding in newborns due to immature circulation, not a specific part of newborn assessment. B: Anterior fontanel soft and level - Important assessment, but not specific to gestational age assessment. D: Vernix caseosa in inguinal creases - Normal finding, but not a specific part of gestational age assessment.