ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Painless red vaginal bleeding. This finding supports the diagnosis of placenta previa due to the characteristic symptom of painless bleeding in the third trimester. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to dilate. The other choices are incorrect because increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus (B) may indicate placental abruption, abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding (C) is not typical of placenta previa, and intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus (D) is more suggestive of preterm labor or bloody show.
Question 2 of 5
During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension due to vasodilation and sympathetic blockade, resulting in decreased blood pressure. This is a common complication that nurses should monitor for and manage promptly. Vomiting (A) is not a direct complication of epidural anesthesia. Tachycardia (B) is not typically associated with epidural anesthesia but may indicate other issues. Respiratory depression (C) is more commonly seen with opioids and not a typical complication of epidural anesthesia.
Question 3 of 5
A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing extra blankets from the baby's crib reduces the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby on the stomach (Option A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Option C) can also increase the risk of suffocation. Placing the crib next to a heater (Option D) can lead to overheating and poses a fire hazard. Removing extra blankets ensures a safe sleep environment for the baby.
Question 4 of 5
A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C, having the client pant during the next contractions, is the correct answer. At 7 cm dilation with a sudden urge to push, it indicates possible fetal descent. Panting can help prevent rapid descent and reducing the risk of cervical edema or injury. It allows time for the cervix to dilate fully before pushing, preventing premature pushing and potential complications. Option A is not a priority at this stage. Option B is incorrect as observing for crowning might lead to premature pushing. Option D is not necessary as voiding is not the priority right now.
Question 5 of 5
During an assessment of a newborn following a vacuum-assisted delivery, which of the following findings should the healthcare provider be informed about?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor sucking. This finding is concerning as it may indicate potential issues with feeding and nutrition in the newborn, which can lead to complications. Poor sucking can be a sign of various underlying problems that require prompt intervention. Blue discoloration of the hands and feet (choice B) is likely due to peripheral cyanosis, which is common in newborns and often resolves on its own. Soft, edematous area on the scalp (choice C) is a common finding in newborns after vacuum-assisted delivery and typically resolves without intervention. Facial edema (choice D) is also a common finding in newborns after delivery and typically resolves on its own.