ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Betamethasone. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to promote fetal lung maturity in preterm labor. In this scenario, at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa and active bleeding, the priority is to promote fetal lung maturity in case of premature delivery due to the risk of maternal hemorrhage. Indomethacin (B) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and not indicated in this situation. Nifedipine (C) is a calcium channel blocker used for preterm labor to delay contractions, not for placenta previa and active bleeding. Methylergonovine (D) is used for postpartum hemorrhage and not indicated in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
When teaching a new mother how to use a bulb syringe to suction her newborn's secretions, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it is important to stop suctioning when the newborn's cry sounds clear to avoid causing unnecessary discomfort or injury. Step 1: Gently compress the bulb syringe. Step 2: Insert the tip into the nostril, not the mouth. Step 3: Release the bulb to suction out the secretions. Step 4: Repeat in the other nostril. Incorrect choices: A is incorrect because you should insert the syringe tip before compressing the bulb. B is incorrect as you should suction the mouth before the nose. C is incorrect as you should not insert the syringe tip in the center of the mouth.
Question 3 of 9
A client in an obstetrical clinic is discussing using an IUD for contraception with a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Checking the strings of the IUD after periods ensures that the device is in place. This indicates understanding of IUD maintenance. Choice A is incorrect because IUDs usually last 3-10 years and do not need annual replacement. Choice B is incorrect because nulliparous women can also use IUDs. Choice C is incorrect as fertility typically returns quickly after IUD removal, not necessarily after 5 months.
Question 4 of 9
A newborn was delivered vaginally and experienced a tight nuchal cord. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Petechiae over the head. This is because tight nuchal cord can cause pressure on the baby's head during delivery, leading to tiny red or purple spots called petechiae due to capillary rupture. Bruising over the buttocks (A) is more common in breech deliveries, hard nodules on the roof of the mouth (B) could indicate Epstein pearls which are benign and common in newborns, and bilateral periauricular papillomas (D) are not related to nuchal cord compression.
Question 5 of 9
A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to poor appetite and weight loss. 2. Eating foods that appeal to taste can help the client consume more calories and nutrients. 3. Balancing meals may not be a priority during hyperemesis gravidarum as the focus is on maintaining adequate nutrition. 4. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's nutritional needs or coping with hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 6 of 9
During a weekly prenatal visit, a nurse is assessing a client at 38 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight gain of 2.2 kg (4.8 lb). This finding should be reported to the provider because sudden excessive weight gain in late pregnancy can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. This could indicate a potential complication that needs immediate medical attention. Explanation: A: Blood pressure 136/88 mm Hg - This blood pressure reading is slightly elevated but not concerning for preeclampsia at this level. B: Report of insomnia - Insomnia is a common issue during pregnancy and not typically a cause for immediate concern. D: Report of Braxton-Hicks contractions - Braxton-Hicks contractions are common in the third trimester and are considered normal as long as they are not regular or increasing in intensity.
Question 7 of 9
An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Levonorgestrel is a type of emergency contraception that is most effective when taken within 72 hours after unprotected sex. Step 2: Taking the medication within the specified time frame increases its effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Step 3: Thus, the nurse should emphasize to the adolescent the importance of taking the medication promptly after unprotected intercourse. Step 4: This information is crucial for the adolescent to understand the time-sensitive nature of levonorgestrel contraception. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because it provides contradictory information. Levonorgestrel can be taken even if the individual is on an oral contraceptive. - Choice C is incorrect as starting a period is not a reliable indicator of pregnancy. A pregnancy test is recommended if there are concerns. - Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraception and does not provide protection for 14 days.
Question 8 of 9
During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately describes an episiotomy as an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus. This information is crucial for the client to understand the purpose and potential benefits of the procedure. A: While choice A is similar to the correct answer, it includes unnecessary detail about who makes the incision, which may confuse the client. B: Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area, which is not recommended as it would involve cutting through the anal sphincter. D: Choice D is incorrect because it introduces unnecessary information about the types of episiotomies without providing the basic understanding of what an episiotomy is.
Question 9 of 9
A client who received carboprost for postpartum hemorrhage is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Carboprost is a prostaglandin used to treat postpartum hemorrhage that can cause hypertension as an adverse effect due to its vasoconstrictive properties. This can lead to increased blood pressure, which should be monitored closely. Hypothermia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of carboprost. Constipation (choice C) and muscle weakness (choice D) are also not typically associated with carboprost use. Monitoring blood pressure and signs of hypertension is crucial due to the potential adverse effects of carboprost.