ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client admitted with acute diverticulitis has experienced a sudden increase in temperature and reports a sudden onset of exquisite abdominal tenderness. The nurse's rapid assessment reveals that the client's abdomen is uncharacteristically rigid on palpation. What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contact the primary care provider promptly and report these signs of perforation. Rationale: 1. Sudden increase in temperature, sudden onset of exquisite abdominal tenderness, and uncharacteristically rigid abdomen are signs of perforation in diverticulitis. 2. Promptly contacting the primary care provider allows for immediate evaluation and intervention. 3. Perforation is a serious complication that requires urgent medical attention to prevent further complications like sepsis. Summary of other choices: A: Administering a Fleet enema is not appropriate and can worsen the condition of a perforated diverticulum. C: Inserting an NG tube is not indicated for a perforated diverticulum and may exacerbate the situation. D: Reporting the client may be obstructed is not accurate based on the signs presented and does not address the urgency of perforation.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a newly created ileostomy has not had ostomy output for the past 12 hours and reports worsening nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report signs and symptoms of obstruction to the health care provider. The priority action in this scenario is to address the possibility of an obstruction, which could be a life-threatening complication. Reporting to the healthcare provider allows for prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. A: Referring to the WOC nurse may be necessary but is not the priority when obstruction is suspected. C: Encouraging mobilization is important for overall health but not the priority in this urgent situation. D: Obtaining a swab for culture is not the priority when obstruction is suspected.
Question 3 of 5
An older adult with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease has been experiencing fecal incontinence, with no recent change in stool character noted by the nurse. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis. This intervention is appropriate for managing fecal incontinence in individuals with Alzheimer's disease. By establishing a routine for toileting, the nurse can help the client maintain continence and reduce the risk of accidents. This approach also promotes dignity and independence for the client. A: Keeping a food diary may be helpful for identifying triggers of fecal incontinence, but it is not the most immediate intervention in this case. B: Providing a bland, low-residue diet may not directly address the issue of fecal incontinence and may not be necessary if there has been no recent change in stool character. D: Securing an order for loperamide may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the first-line intervention for managing fecal incontinence in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A client's health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohn disease, rather than ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the client's signs and symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An absence of blood in stool. This suggests Crohn's disease over ulcerative colitis because Crohn's can involve any part of the GI tract and may not always present with blood in stool, in contrast to ulcerative colitis which typically involves the rectum and almost always presents with blood in stool due to continuous inflammation in the colon. Choices A, B, and D are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis, which typically presents with a pattern of exacerbations and remissions, severe diarrhea, and rectal mucosal involvement.
Question 5 of 5
When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Infection. Postoperative obese patients are at higher risk for surgical site infections due to impaired wound healing, decreased tissue oxygenation, and increased tissue pressure. Obesity also compromises the immune system, further increasing susceptibility to infections. Age is a risk factor for infection as well, as older adults may have weakened immune responses. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is a common issue in obese patients but not specifically related to postoperative complications. Azotemia (choice B) refers to elevated levels of nitrogen-containing compounds in the blood and is not directly related to obesity or age. Falls (choice C) are more related to mobility issues and environmental factors, not specifically to age and obesity in the postoperative period.