A 70-year-old male with a history of diabetes presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to the back. A CT scan shows a dissection flap in the ascending aorta. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An ascending aortic dissection is a surgical emergency due to the risk of rupture and cardiac tamponade. Immediate surgery is required.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Thalassemia patients may require iron if deficient (e.g., from blood loss), though iron overload is a concern in transfusion-dependent cases. The absolute 'never' is incorrect. Other statements align with anemia pathophysiology.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: This statement is true as all listed factors (epidural catheters, diabetes mellitus, alcoholism, HIV infection, bacteremia, and IV drug use) are well-documented risk factors for spinal epidural abscesses due to their association with infection or immune compromise.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Home blood pressure monitoring provides a more accurate reflection of overall cardiovascular risk compared to sporadic office readings and avoids white-coat effects.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Cholesterol crystals in synovial fluid are a normal finding in chronic joint effusions, such as in rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis, rather than a specific disease like hyperlipidemia.