A 69-year-old male presents with abnormal speech and right-sided weakness. While eating lunch with his wife, he suddenly could not move his right arm or leg, and was unable to speak. They arrived to the emergency department within minutes. His wife currently reports improvement from when the symptoms first began, and he is almost back to normal when examined 1 hour later. Past medical history is significant for hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years. Non-contrast head CT is shown. Diffusion-weighted image MRI shows no sign of infarction. CT angiogram of the neck shows 72% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery. Which of the following is most likely etiology of his transient ischemic attack?

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Neurological Disorders in Medical Surgical Nursing Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 69-year-old male presents with abnormal speech and right-sided weakness. While eating lunch with his wife, he suddenly could not move his right arm or leg, and was unable to speak. They arrived to the emergency department within minutes. His wife currently reports improvement from when the symptoms first began, and he is almost back to normal when examined 1 hour later. Past medical history is significant for hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years. Non-contrast head CT is shown. Diffusion-weighted image MRI shows no sign of infarction. CT angiogram of the neck shows 72% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery. Which of the following is most likely etiology of his transient ischemic attack?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Transient symptoms resolving within 1 hour with significant carotid stenosis (72%) suggest TIA from artery-to-artery embolization. Cardioembolism requires atrial fibrillation, small vessel disease causes lacunar syndromes, and hypoperfusion lacks focal deficits.

Question 2 of 5

A 66-year-old man presents with progressively worsening headache that is most severe with sneezing and picking up heavy objects. The headache began approximately 3 months ago, is diffuse, non-pulsating, and associated with nausea and 2 episodes of vomiting. Medical history is unremarkable. A gadolinium-enhanced magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain shows a hyperintense serpentine irregularity of the margins. Pathology shows a hypercellular gliotic tumor with necrosis and high mitotic count. Preparations are made for radiation therapy with adjuvant chemotherapy. Which of the following is most likely the adjuvant chemotherapeutic agent used?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: High-grade glioma (e.g., glioblastoma) with necrosis and mitotic activity is treated with radiation and temozolomide, an alkylating agent improving survival. Bevacizumab is for recurrence.

Question 3 of 5

The part of the brain responsible for coordinating all your movements is the:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements, balance, and posture, fine-tuning motor actions.

Question 4 of 5

Action potentials normally travel along an axon

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Action potentials propagate unidirectionally from the axon hillock (near the cell body) toward the axon terminals, away from the soma.

Question 5 of 5

One of the most important branch points in the evolution of animals and their nervous systems was the appearance of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bilateral symmetry allowed cephalization and centralized nervous systems, a key evolutionary step for complex behavior.

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