A 67-year-old man presents with sudden left leg pain, absence of pulses, and a cold limb. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and a small aortic aneurysm. Which of the following is most likely responsible for development of a cold limb in this patient?

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100 Questions on the Cardiovascular System Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 67-year-old man presents with sudden left leg pain, absence of pulses, and a cold limb. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and a small aortic aneurysm. Which of the following is most likely responsible for development of a cold limb in this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Arterial thromboembolism, likely from an aortic aneurysm or atherosclerotic plaque, causes acute limb ischemia with sudden pain, pulselessness, and coldness.

Question 2 of 5

What instruction would the nurse give when teaching a patient about stage 1 hypertension?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient should decrease intake of sodium. This will help to control hypertension, which can be aggravated by excessive salt intake.

Question 3 of 5

What is the priority action when a client is prescribed verapamil for atrial fibrillation and has a BP of 88/56 mmHg and HR of 55 bpm?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil can cause bradycardia and hypotension, so it should be held and the provider notified.

Question 4 of 5

What lab result is most likely if a patient on spironolactone develops muscle weakness and palpitations?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a known adverse effect of potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone.

Question 5 of 5

What nursing interventions are essential for a client with ventricular tachycardia prescribed lidocaine IV?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Lidocaine can cause CNS toxicity, and it is incompatible with many IV drugs, so compatibility must be ensured.

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