ATI LPN
Cardiovascular Disease Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 60-year-old male with a history of coronary artery disease presents with recurrent angina. Coronary angiography shows a 90% stenosis in the left anterior descending artery. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A significant stenosis in the left anterior descending artery warrants revascularization. PCI is preferred for single-vessel disease.
Question 2 of 5
In thrombosis and hemostasis, all the following are true except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Young age at thrombosis (D) warrants a hypercoagulable work-up, unlike myocardial infarction/stroke (E), which may have other causes. Factor VIII inhibitors are rare (A is false), warfarin starts with heparin overlap (C is false).
Question 3 of 5
Which serologic test is the main method for diagnosis of acute infection by hantaviruses?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anti-hantavirus IgM is the primary serologic test for diagnosing acute hantavirus infection because it indicates recent exposure and active infection.
Question 4 of 5
A 70-year-old woman hospitalized one week ago for acute on chronic kidney injury. Since her hospitalization, she has been receiving hemodialysis through a temporary femoral catheter. Last night she developed a fever 101.7°F. On examination, she is confused; blood pressure 76/40 mmHg the heart rate of 108 b/min. Weight is 60 kg(132 pounds). She is adequate peripheral venous access and is given a 1-liter bolus of normal intravenous saline over 30 minutes. After receiving fluids, her blood pressure is 78/44 mmHg. Oxygen saturation 96% breathing ambient air. Cardiac examination is a regular tachycardia rhythm. There is no jugular venous distention. There is erythema without purulent drainage noted at the femoral catheter site. The extremities are warm with bounding pulses without edema. Data: Hemoglobin 9 g/dL; leukocytosis 16,000; Creatinine 2.6; Potassium 5.6 mEq/L. Blood cultures are growing gram-positive cocci. A chest radiograph is normal. EKG shows sinus tachycardia without ischemia. In addition to replacing the hemodialysis catheter which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is in septic shock likely due to catheter-related bloodstream infection. Additional fluid resuscitation is necessary to stabilize hemodynamics before considering vasopressors or other interventions.
Question 5 of 5
The therapy that most directly improves cardiac contractility in a patient with systolic heart failure is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Digitalis may be used for symptom management of heart failure. Cardiac glycosides directly inhibit the sodium-potassium pump present in the cell membrane of all cells. The intracellular changes allow more calcium to remain in the cell, thus strengthening myocardial contraction. Contractility is not improved through afterload reduction. Beta-blockers inhibit the effects of sympathetic activation and have the potential to reduce cardiac output. Preload reduction is not the therapy of choice in improving cardiac contractility.