A 58 yo female with history of type II diabetes, smoker, remote history of NSTEMI and stenting of circumflex artery, presents to the ER with 24 hrs of intermittent chest pain. The initial EKG demonstrates ST depression in the inferior leads. Her symptoms resolve readily with conservative medical therapy and she is hemodynamically stable. A repeat EKG demonstrates resolution of ST changes and the patient feels well. Serial cardiac enzymes are mildly increased (troponinI= 0.03, 0.60, 0.90). The best approach to this patient is?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is an invasive approach because the patient has a known history of coronary artery disease and presented with chest pain and elevated troponins, indicating unstable angina or non-ST elevation MI. Cardiac catheterization helps determine the need for revascularization.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril improve survival in patients with heart failure by reducing afterload and improving cardiac remodeling.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The headache described fits the pattern of a migraine without aura, characterized by unilateral, throbbing pain lasting between 4 hours and 3 days.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: DIC diagnosis involves low platelets and fibrinogen due to consumption. HIT can occur with heparinoids (A is false), TTP is diagnosed clinically (C is false), and transfusions below 20,000 depend on bleeding risk (D is false).

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: All listed symptoms (fever, malaise, vomiting, and diarrhea) are characteristic of Ebola virus disease, making 'All of the above' the correct choice.