ATI LPN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 56-year-old woman presents to discuss the results of her recent upper endoscopy. She was having some mild abdominal pain, so she underwent the procedure, which revealed an ulcer in the antrum of the stomach. Biopsy of the lesion revealed the presence of H. pylori. All of the following statements regarding her condition are correct except
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reinfection is rare despite adequate treatment. H. pylori reinfection can occur, especially in high-prevalence areas or due to poor hygiene. A: Correct - H. pylori is associated with gastric MALT lymphoma. C: Correct - Triple therapy (usually with a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin) is more effective than dual therapy. D: Correct - H. pylori IgG antibody titer can be used to assess treatment response. Reinfection is not rare and can happen, making option B incorrect.
Question 2 of 5
In a 45-year-old woman with a history of arthritis experiencing severe heartburn and indigestion refractory to antacids, which findings on an esophageal manometry study are consistent with her diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absent peristalsis and decreased LES pressure. In a patient with severe heartburn and indigestion refractory to antacids, these findings are consistent with achalasia, a motility disorder characterized by impaired esophageal peristalsis and decreased LES pressure. Absent peristalsis leads to poor esophageal clearance and retention of food, causing symptoms like heartburn. Decreased LES pressure results in inadequate closure of the LES, leading to reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not match the typical findings seen in achalasia. Vigorous peristalsis and elevated LES pressure are not consistent with achalasia, while absent peristalsis with increased LES pressure is not a common presentation.
Question 3 of 5
A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Barium swallow. In this case, the patient's symptoms suggest a possible esophageal disorder affecting solid food ingestion. Barium swallow is a non-invasive test that can detect structural abnormalities in the esophagus, such as strictures or tumors, that may be causing dysphagia. It is the best initial test to evaluate the patient's symptoms as it provides a detailed visualization of the esophagus and can identify the cause of dysphagia. Upper endoscopy (choice A) would be appropriate if structural abnormalities are suspected. Chest/abdominal CT scan (choice B) may not provide as detailed information about esophageal function. Esophageal manometry (choice D) is more useful for evaluating motor function of the esophagus, which is not the primary concern in this case.
Question 4 of 5
A 45-year-old woman with occasional indigestion has had episodes of chest pain and dysphagia to both solids and liquids. An upper GI series and EGD fail to disclose any structural abnormalities. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proton pump inhibitor. In this case, the patient's symptoms of chest pain, dysphagia to solids and liquids, and indigestion suggest possible gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). A proton pump inhibitor helps reduce gastric acid production, alleviating symptoms and potentially healing any esophageal damage caused by reflux. This is the most appropriate initial therapy as it targets the underlying cause. A: Sucralfate is a cytoprotective agent that may help with mucosal protection but does not address acid suppression, which is crucial in GERD. C: Prokinetic agents enhance gastrointestinal motility and are not the first-line treatment for GERD. D: Benzodiazepines are not indicated for the treatment of GERD and do not address the underlying acid reflux issue.
Question 5 of 5
A 65-year-old white female with a history of arthritis, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks. A barium swallow shows a moderate-sized crater just above the gastroesophageal junction. What is the least likely contributor to this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium channel blocker. Odynophagia is often associated with esophageal ulcers, which can be exacerbated by NSAIDs (A) due to their effect on the gastric mucosa. Alendronate (B) is a bisphosphonate used to treat osteoporosis and can cause esophagitis. Iron sulfate (C) can also irritate the esophagus. However, calcium channel blockers (D) are least likely to contribute to esophageal ulcers or odynophagia as they do not directly affect the esophagus or increase the risk of ulcers.