ATI LPN
Cardiovascular Disease Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 54 y/o mal with long history of GERD symptoms underwent an EGD to exclude Barrett's Esophagus. A 7 cm salmon colored tongue extending from the esophagogastric junction was noted. Multiple biopsies revealed intestinal metaplasia with low-grade dysplasia. What should be the next step in this patient's management?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Barrett's esophagus with low-grade dysplasia requires confirmation by an expert GI pathologist due to variability in interpretation, as management (e.g., ablation vs. surveillance) hinges on accurate diagnosis.
Question 2 of 5
50 yo female with a 25-year history of migraine headaches with visual auras presents for her clinic visit and has been having them more frequently(once a week). What would you suggest next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An increase in frequency of migraines with aura should prompt further investigation such as an MRI to rule out underlying structural abnormalities.
Question 3 of 5
In thrombosis and hemostasis, all the following are true except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Young age at thrombosis (D) warrants a hypercoagulable work-up, unlike myocardial infarction/stroke (E), which may have other causes. Factor VIII inhibitors are rare (A is false), warfarin starts with heparin overlap (C is false).
Question 4 of 5
Which serologic test is the main method for diagnosis of acute infection by hantaviruses?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anti-hantavirus IgM is the primary serologic test for diagnosing acute hantavirus infection because it indicates recent exposure and active infection.
Question 5 of 5
A 70-year-old woman hospitalized one week ago for acute on chronic kidney injury. Since her hospitalization, she has been receiving hemodialysis through a temporary femoral catheter. Last night she developed a fever 101.7°F. On examination, she is confused; blood pressure 76/40 mmHg the heart rate of 108 b/min. Weight is 60 kg(132 pounds). She is adequate peripheral venous access and is given a 1-liter bolus of normal intravenous saline over 30 minutes. After receiving fluids, her blood pressure is 78/44 mmHg. Oxygen saturation 96% breathing ambient air. Cardiac examination is a regular tachycardia rhythm. There is no jugular venous distention. There is erythema without purulent drainage noted at the femoral catheter site. The extremities are warm with bounding pulses without edema. Data: Hemoglobin 9 g/dL; leukocytosis 16,000; Creatinine 2.6; Potassium 5.6 mEq/L. Blood cultures are growing gram-positive cocci. A chest radiograph is normal. EKG shows sinus tachycardia without ischemia. In addition to replacing the hemodialysis catheter which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is in septic shock likely due to catheter-related bloodstream infection. Additional fluid resuscitation is necessary to stabilize hemodynamics before considering vasopressors or other interventions.